This related Q, What does "glory" of the Gentiles mean in Isaiah? deals with the word 'glory' which I'm not asking about. This other related Q, In Ezekiel 10:4, Why does Ezekiel see a Cloud not a man as the כְּבֽוֹד יְהֹוָה֙ Glory of YHVH - when Hebrews 1:3 definition of God's Glory is Jesus? deals with 'glory' in Ezekiel and Hebrews, again, which I'm not asking about.
The verses in Romans 9 I'm asking about begin with verse 27 through to 33, but there are 3 verses in particular that speak of the Gentiles:
"...the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith. But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. Wherefore? Because they sought it not be faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone..." [then quotes Isaiah 28:16.] Romans 9:30-32
Twice previously Isaiah had been quoted, so I turned there to learn how the Gentiles could attain faith that would enable them to see the glory of God. Isaiah 66:18-19 struck me with God saying he would gather all nations and tongues; they would see his glory. Then it adds, "and they shall declare my glory among the Gentiles." Is the Septuagint clearer as to who does what, regarding the Gentiles? It seems to switch from God, to some group of people, with Romans 9 making the Gentile's faith in God key to seeing God's glory.
If this is a muddle of a question, that's because I'm muddled trying to connect Isaiah with Romans 9. I just wondered if the Septuagint of Isaiah would throw light on the Greek of Romans 9.