When Paul asked: “ “You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?”” Romans 9:19
Is Paul asking in the context of Romans 9:1-24, but specifically in Romans 9:19: “Who has resisted His(God) will(moral law)? (Answer: everybody universally within mankind) then is Paul asking rhetorically: Why does He still find fault? (Because they are always resisting God’s will?).
Can we answer it like that based on Paul’s rhetorical structure? Saying that: “all beings are still found to be at fault with God because everyone resists His will?”
Pardon any redundancy.
For a little broader context:
“Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens. You will say to me then,
“Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?” But indeed, O man, who are you to reply against God?
Will the thing formed say to him who formed it, “Why have you made me like this?” Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor?
What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory, even us whom He called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?” Romans 9:18-24