Hebrews 9:28, DRB:
So also Christ was offered once to exhaust the sins of many; the second time he shall appear without sin to them that expect him unto salvation.
The phrase he shall appear without sin is ambiguous somehow. Did he appear in the first time with sin?
This phrase appears in some versions clear, but I am not sure if it was a literal translation.
- he will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him. NIV.
- He will come again, not to deal with our sins, but to bring salvation to all who are eagerly waiting for him. NLT.
- will appear a second time, not to deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him. ESV.
And many other translations of clear meaning.
But KJV, ASV and DRB and many other translations who are faithful to the original Greek Text, appear ambiguous somehow.
So what is the most accurate translation?, Could you interpret it to me?