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Mathew 19:17; DRB;

17 Who said to him: Why asketh thou me concerning good? One is good, God. But if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Mathew 19:17; KJV;

17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Mathew 19:17; ASV;

17 And he said unto him, [a]Why askest thou me concerning that which is good? One there is who is good: but if thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments.

Mathew 19:17; Darby;

17 And he said to him, What askest thou me concerning goodness? one is good. But if thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments.

According to textual criticism, which translation is more accurate, translations which mention God, or the others which don't?

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The OP's highlighted text translate the Greek phrase which is different depending on the edition of the GNT.

According to NA4, UBS5/NA28, W&H, etc, the text is:

εἷς ἐστιν ὁ ἀγαθός = one is [the] good

According to the Byzantine text, Majority Text, TR, etc, the text is:

ουδεις αγαθος ει μη εις ο θεος = no one is good except one - God

The extensive details about which MSS support which reading and their dates, see UBS5 which marks its reading (the first above) as {A} - essentially certain. In Bruce Metzger's "Textual Commentary on the GNT" he comments:

Many of the witness (but not theta, 700 al) that interpolate ἀγαθε in V16 also modify V17 by substituting for Matthew's distinctive account, the words from the parallel accounts ... (Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19). If the latter reading were original in Matthew, it is hard to imagine why copyists would have altered it to a more obscure one, whereas, scribal assimilations to synoptic parallels occurs frequently.

It is for these reasons, based on the weighty evidence tabulated in UBS5 that most modern versions adopt the UBS5/NA28 text.

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