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Jude 24 in KJV says:

Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy

Various English translations render this different ways, of course. But looking at it (and not yet reading Greek grammar), I'm wondering if the original sentence structure connects the "exceeding joy" with the "you" being presented, or back to the "him" who is doing the presenting?

My interlinear has:

To Him now being able to keep you from stumbling and to present [you] in the presence of the glory of Him blameless with exultation

Young's Literal Translation says:

And to Him who is able to guard you not stumbling, and to set [you] in the presence of His glory unblemished, in gladness

Is the gladness part of how I am presented? Or is it His gladness because I am presented in His presence? How does the grammar connect this? (Side question: is it true the original Greek does not have punctuation, such as the commas shown in this verse?)

Ed

  • There is no connection for "exceeding joy" in the Greek sentence structure. – Perry Webb Jun 1 '19 at 23:15
  • There are occasions, and this may be one of them, where the union of the saints with Christ, in the Holy Spirit, makes it difficult to tell who is in focus - and sometimes it is both, simultaneously. – Nigel J Jun 5 '19 at 13:57
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I would translate Jude 24 very literally as follows:

Now, to the [one] being able to keep you[pl] from stumbling and to present [you] in [the] presence of the glory of him blameless with exultation -

Note that some of the pronouns [in square brackets above] are not explicit but are implied for the English translation. The explicit "you" is plural. Thus, there are only two explicit pronouns in this passage.

The clause after the "and" contains only one verb (= "to present") with a single objective/accusative phrase (= "in the presence of his glory, blameless") and one secondary object in the accusative (= "exultation" or "joy"). This structure suggests that God (as deduced from the initial phrase of v25)is doing the presenting; and the objects being presented in his presence are saved people, blameless with great exultation.

That the ones being presented are blameless is not disputed. Grammatically, this would also require of the dative (secondary object) that the ones being presented are also exulting with joy. This can be seen even in the English that the ones being presented are presented with two (nouns) states, ie, being both blameless and joyful.

However, I am certain that when this occurs, the saved saints will not be the only ones rejoicing - all heaven and the angels will also be rejoicing as well - see Rev 15:3, 4, 19:6, 7, etc.

  • Thank you for the depth of your post. Is it proper to take the leap from a collective plural "you" to a singular and personal application (as could be read into the text with a supplied "you" in the second half ("and to present [you]")? – EdNerd Jun 2 '19 at 3:11
  • The implied "You"s are all plural. He is addressing Christians in the Christian community. – user25930 Jun 2 '19 at 6:52

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