Jude 24 in KJV says:
Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy
Various English translations render this different ways, of course. But looking at it (and not yet reading Greek grammar), I'm wondering if the original sentence structure connects the "exceeding joy" with the "you" being presented, or back to the "him" who is doing the presenting?
My interlinear has:
To Him now being able to keep you from stumbling and to present [you] in the presence of the glory of Him blameless with exultation
Young's Literal Translation says:
And to Him who is able to guard you not stumbling, and to set [you] in the presence of His glory unblemished, in gladness
Is the gladness part of how I am presented? Or is it His gladness because I am presented in His presence? How does the grammar connect this? (Side question: is it true the original Greek does not have punctuation, such as the commas shown in this verse?)