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The art/science of textual criticism attempts to reconstruct the oldest or original wording of a given text.

1 vote
Accepted

How should the ending of 2 Peter 2:11 read?

As best I can tell, there is no major difference in the wording seen in the oldest extant manuscripts dated closest to any original text of 2 Peter. Specifically: P72 (ca. 275-325 CE) shows ΠΑΡΑΚΥΡΙ …
M. Wm. Ferguson's user avatar
4 votes

Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8

I see where codices P66 P75 (both c. 175-225 CE) and 03 (c. 325-375 CE) contain ΟΥΠΟ (ουπω, not yet) at John 7:8, while the later codex 01 (c. 375-425 CE) has ΟΥΚ (ουκ, not) at that place. I also see …
M. Wm. Ferguson's user avatar
0 votes

Should John 1:18 read "the only begotten God"?

The OP asked: Was the original language showing "son" or "god"? The original language of John 1:18 is unknown. Even some of the church fathers disagreed as to its likely wording. For example: …
M. Wm. Ferguson's user avatar
13 votes
Accepted

Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form o …
M. Wm. Ferguson's user avatar
1 vote

Evidence for/against Romans chapter 16 being a later addition to the text?

The oldest extant biblical source document containing ROM 16 (𝔓⁴⁶, leaf 12v, c. 175-224 CE) shows that verses 24, 25, 26, and 27 are absent and, ergo, apocryphal; i.e., of questionable authenticity.
M. Wm. Ferguson's user avatar