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The art/science of textual criticism attempts to reconstruct the oldest or original wording of a given text.
1
vote
Accepted
How should the ending of 2 Peter 2:11 read?
As best I can tell, there is no major difference in the wording seen in the oldest extant manuscripts dated closest to any original text of 2 Peter. Specifically:
P72 (ca. 275-325 CE) shows ΠΑΡΑΚΥΡΙ …
4
votes
Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8
I see where codices P66 P75 (both c. 175-225 CE) and 03 (c. 325-375 CE) contain ΟΥΠΟ (ουπω, not yet) at John 7:8, while the later codex 01 (c. 375-425 CE) has ΟΥΚ (ουκ, not) at that place.
I also see …
0
votes
Should John 1:18 read "the only begotten God"?
The OP asked:
Was the original language showing "son" or "god"?
The original language of John 1:18 is unknown. Even some of the church fathers disagreed as to its likely wording. For example:
…
13
votes
Accepted
Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?
As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity".
The form o …
1
vote
Evidence for/against Romans chapter 16 being a later addition to the text?
The oldest extant biblical source document containing ROM 16 (𝔓⁴⁶, leaf 12v, c. 175-224 CE) shows that verses 24, 25, 26, and 27 are absent and, ergo, apocryphal; i.e., of questionable authenticity.