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In the Gospel of John we read:

John 5:6, 8-10: "When Jesus saw [the lame man] lying there... 8Jesus said to him, 'Get up, pick up your pallet and walk.' 9Immediately the man became well, and picked up his pallet and began to walk. Now it was the Sabbath on that day. 10So the Jews were saying to the man who was cured, 'It is the Sabbath, and it is not permissible for you to carry your pallet'" (emphasis added).

What law of Moses tells us that this man could not pick up what appears to essentially be his bed?

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    Thus saith the LORD; Take heed to yourselves, and bear no burden on the sabbath day, nor bring it in by the gates of Jerusalem; Jeremiah 17:21.
    – Nigel J
    Sep 5 at 1:01
  • The Jews did not say it was a law of Moses or a 'Torah' law. They just said, It is not lawful. How then can this be disproved since Jeremiah says 'the Lord saith' . . . . ?
    – Nigel J
    Sep 5 at 1:41
  • @NigelJ - being that strict would suggest that lifting spoon-full of food to the mouth or even lift food from the plate to mouth could be classified as carrying burden on the Sabbath. Much heavier loads are generated by lifting cloths to place them on the body. I think that is the point of Jesus' teaching that such silly, impractical rules were burdensome.
    – Dottard
    Sep 5 at 2:15
  • 1
    @Dottard I think there is more here to be discovered. I am not just being petty. The burden of a man's bedding is far greater than a morsel of food or a garment. And it was not necessary for the man to carry it. Why not collect it on the morrow - on the first day - for now he had the locomotion to do so when he chose ? I believe the Lord had purpose in instructing him to carry his bedding. I think we should see something specific, here. (And up-voted +1, by the way.)
    – Nigel J
    Sep 5 at 3:20
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Jer. and Neh. in their writings mention that it is unlawful to carry a burden on the Sabbath. However, this was an extreme since the man was not carrying is mat to sell it. But, while Neh. mentions the burden related to merchants, Jer. does not.

Thus says the LORD: Take care for the sake of your lives, and do not bear a burden on the Sabbath day or bring it in by the gates of Jerusalem. 22 And do not carry a burden out of your houses on the Sabbath or do any work, but keep the Sabbath day holy, as I commanded your fathers. (Jer. 17:21–22, ESV)

 As soon as it began to grow dark at the gates of Jerusalem before the Sabbath, I commanded that the doors should be shut and gave orders that they should not be opened until after the Sabbath. And I stationed some of my servants at the gates, that no load might be brought in on the Sabbath day. (Neh. 13:19, ESV)

By Old Testament standards, it is not clear the healed man was contravening the law, since he did not normally carry mats around for a living; according to the ‘tradition of the elders’ the man was breaking the law, since he was contravening one of the prohibited thirty-nine categories of work to which the law was understood to refer. It is not yet Jesus who is charged with breaking the law (e.g. for healing the man on a Sabbath, as in Mk. 3:1–6), though that will come (v. 18): for the moment, it is the healed man who must face the indignation of the Jews—here referring to the religious authorities in Jerusalem (cf. notes on 1:19). -- Carson, D. A. (1991). The Gospel according to John (pp. 244–245). Leicester, England; Grand Rapids, MI: Inter-Varsity Press; W.B. Eerdmans.

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    . . . . . but the Lord saith (without any reference to work or earning a living) Bear no burden. This is the word of the Lord.
    – Nigel J
    Sep 5 at 2:07
  • 1
    @ Nigel See edit.
    – Perry Webb
    Sep 5 at 17:29
  • >> '...since the man was not carrying his mat to sell it' Could the mat or pallet itself be considered a 'tool of the trade' given the lame man's beggar status, so even though it wasn't a saleable item simply carrying it (similar to a carpenter with a toolbox) was still an aspect of 'working'?
    – mcalex
    Sep 6 at 6:13
  • Is a passage in Jeremiah "the Law of Moses"?
    – Robert
    Sep 6 at 20:41
  • The Jeremiah passage is an application of keeping the Sabbath in the Law of Moses.
    – Perry Webb
    Sep 6 at 20:59
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There is no such explicit prohibition against carrying such a minor article on the Sabbath in the Torah.

However, we have some other places where there is a prohibition against carrying heavy burdens in the process of earning a living or trading (neither of which the man was doing)

  • Jer 17:21 - This is what the LORD says: Take heed for yourselves; do not carry a load or bring it through the gates of Jerusalem on the Sabbath day.
  • Neh 13:15 - In those days I saw people in Judah treading winepresses on the Sabbath and bringing in grain and loading it on donkeys, along with wine, grapes, and figs. All kinds of goods were being brought into Jerusalem on the Sabbath day. So I warned them against selling food on that day.

The only such Torah law is a very general one about not doing work involved in earning a living such as:

  • Ex 20:8-10 - Remember the Sabbath day by keeping it holy. Six days you shall labor and do all your work, but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God, on which you must not do any work—neither you, nor your son or daughter, nor your manservant or maidservant or livestock, nor the foreigner within your gates.
  • Ex 23:12 - For six days you are to do your work, but on the seventh day you must cease, so that your ox and your donkey may rest and the son of your maidservant may be refreshed, as well as the foreign resident.

However, as noted above, in carrying his mat, the healed man was not guilty of any of these offenses and thus the Jews' accusation was completely baseless. Most of these type of accusation were based upon the made-made expansions of the law which made Sabbath keeping oppressive and burdensome. But these extra laws have little basis in either the Torah or the rest of the OT.

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  • The Jews did not say it was a law of Moses or a 'Torah' law. They just said, It is not lawful. How then can this be disproved since Jeremiah says 'the Lord saith' . . . ?
    – Nigel J
    Sep 5 at 1:41
  • @NigelJ - I completely agree - BUT the OP's question specifically asks about the source in the law of Moses. See the heading.
    – Dottard
    Sep 5 at 2:11

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