What does Jesus mean when curing a man in John 5

Question

I came in contact with the following verse:

I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive. (John 5:43, KJV)

However I couldn't comprehend well what means, for it says if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive, who would this last person be, and what is the motivation to say it.

This arises as Jesus was in Jerusalem where it was happening amongst the jews a feast. And more, in the same chapter it says:

11 He answered them, He that made me whole, the same said unto me, Take up thy bed, and walk. (ESV)

Is it that Christ refers to he himself or he puts himself as if he was in the place of the man he cured, and by this, feeling the other one's sufferings.

Lastly, Jesus says that he works on Shabbat as G'd does, however G'd rests on the Holy Day, how is it possible?

17 But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work. (KJV)

Answer 1

The key to understanding the meaning of John 5:43 is to read the verses leading up to it. In it Jesus is talking with the Jewish leaders who challenge him for healing on the sabbath (Pharisees, Scribes etc) and emphasising that the truth of his testimony of coming from God should be very clear and obvious to them.

The reasons why it should be obvious: He first points to John the Baptist as testifying in his favor (John 5:33) but the primary reason he gives in John 5:36

I have testimony weightier than that of John. For the works that the Father has given me to finish—the very works that I am doing—testify that the Father has sent me

He essentially says: He has come in Gods name, and the powerful and miraculous works he is doing are undeniable proof that God has sent him. The miracles and healing - like the one he just performed to heal a man paralyzed for 38 years right in front of them - testify he has come from God. Yet despite them witnessing Gods power actively working through him to perform miracles, they still refuse to accept his words or teaching.

He then contrasts this by saying they will accept another who comes in his own name. By this statement he isn't pointing to anyone specific but rather just other people or teachers who come without Gods power or authority. Without any miraculous works. Basically they will accept the testimony and teaching of "False teachers" who only come in their own power and authority and so have no supernatural works or miracles to back their testimony - but continue to reject his teaching in spite of undisputible evidence he comes in the power of God.

For the question regarding John 5:11: That verse is simply the healed man informing the scribes/pharisees that the man who healed him - Jesus - is the same man who told him to pick up his mat and walk.

For John 5:17 the question regarding God working on the Sabbath - I would suggest submitting this as a seperate question as it would require quite a bit of exposition of various scriptures unreleated to the primary thread you have raised.

Answer 2

KJV John 5:

43 I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.

comes
ἔλθῃ (elthē)
Verb - Aorist Subjunctive Active - 3rd Person Singular

The Potential Subjunctive is used to suggest an action as possible or conceivable.

Literal Standard Version

I have come in the Name of My Father, and you do not receive Me; if another may come in his own name, him you will receive;

Who would this last person be?

No one specific. It is a subjunctive potential person: if another would come ... .

What is the motivation to say it?

to distinguish between Jesus coming in the Name of the Father from anyone who is not coming in the Name of the Father, e.g., Matthew 24:

24 For false messiahs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect.

Answer 3

That God works on the sabbath was already claimed by Philo of Alexandria. Jesus' claim, that he could work on the sabbath, put his claim of God being his Father at a higher level than a human, that he was at the level of God.

His working out from God and with God, which makes their charge a charge against God Himself, ver. 19. The last idea has special emphasis. According to Strauss the sentence is Alexandrian. [Philo of Alexandria, in his Treatise on the Allegories of the Sacred Laws, chap. vii. says with regard to the institution of the Sabbath after creation: “God never ceases to work (ποιῶν ὁ θεὸς οὐθέποτε παύεται), but when He appears to do so, He is only beginning the creation of something else; as being not only the Creator, but also the Father of everything which exists.”—P. S.] -- Lange, J. P., & Schaff, P. (2008). A commentary on the Holy Scriptures: John (p. 186). Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.

John 5:43

I have come in my Father’s name, and you do not receive me. If another comes in his own name, you will receive him. (ESV)

ἐγὼ ἐλήλυθα - The pronoun is unnecessary, putting emphasis on "I." The perfect tense verb is because Jesus came, but the perfect tense refers to the result of that action, he is still present there.

Jesus' miracles were witness to the fact that Jesus came from God. Why did they not receive him?

How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God? (John 5:44, ESV)

Thus, if someone should come in their own name, they would praise the Jewish leaders and seek approval from human leadership, thus be received; what the Pharisees wanted the Messiah to be.

Jesus, who came in God's name, seeking God's approval, not human approval, brought correction with authority over the Jewish leadership. So, they did not approve Jesus' teaching.