I was reading my bible when I stumbled on Isaiah 65:20:
There shall be no more thence an infant of days, nor an old man that hath not filled his days: for the child shall die an hundred years old; but the sinner being an hundred years old shall be accursed.
From what I understand the verse refers to the new heavens and earth. But the expression "for the child shall die an hundred years old" gave me a lot of headaches. I asked myself what? Will there still be death at that time? So I tried to do some research and I saw that many people asked themselves the same question. Everyone giving his interpretation, or proposing a new translation like here: In Isaiah 65:17-25 does the author envision death in the new Heavens and new Earth?
I was thinking of choosing a proposal that could satisfy me, and not give much weight to the thing. But I was even luckier, on this page I found what I think is the best explanation: http://allpowertothelamb.com/2016/04/reconciling-isaiah/
And there shall be no more there a person of immature years, or an old man who shall not fulfil his days. For the young man shall be an hundred years old; but the sinner who dies an hundred years old, he shall be accursed.
As you can read the quote of Justin Martyr is different from the translations we have today. As the author of the article explains the new meaning of the verse is this:
...Isaiah is contrasting the state of the sinner with the state of the righteous in the new heavens and the new earth. The righteous people that are born in the new earth and have lived 100 years will be considered young, a mere youth. In contrast, the sinner that lived to the ripe old age of 100 during this life and was seemingly blessed by having had a long life, will find the situation dramatically changed in the new earth...
Then the author continues with various speculations: he states that the Jews have changed different verses of the bible to make them incompatible with Christian writings. But he also states that the early Christians read the Septuagint, which according to tradition was translated centuries before the formation of Christianity. Did those Jews altered also all the copies of the Septuagint?! (/s) Even modern versions of the bible based on the Septuagint do not contain the verses as expressed by Justin Martyr.
From further research I discovered that the Septuagint contains the apocrypha, which made me doubt that it was used by the early Christians. And after reading the book "Did Jesus Use the Septuagint?" by David W. Daniels, I doubt that such a thing ever existed.
In short, I would like to know if any of you have studied the subject and if you could tell me if a version of the bible, containing Isaiah 65:20 as expressed by Justin Martyr, has come to this day. Or the writing of Justin Martyr is not a precise quotation, but just an insightful paraphrase.