In John 13:4,5 the word λεντιον lention is used - translated 'towel' usually. Young, Strong, Thayer and Liddel & Scott all refer to linteum, a Latin word.
For Strong and Thayer, see Biblehub.
I am aware of suppositions about the garment being associated with crucifixion and I am not interested in pursuing that. I am only interested in the word itself as used by John. The only scriptural reference is the incident of the washing of the disciples' feet.
Is the Greek λεντιον a transliteration of the Latin linteum ? Or is λεντιον a Greek word in and of itself, is my query. It interests me if it be the case that John has deliberately used a transliteration or, indeed, has himself transliterated it - as, indeed, he may well have done with arrhaphos the garment woven without seam, transliterating the Hebrew erhabon.
Neither of these is exact transliterations, however. If linteum be Latin and lention be its Greek equivalent, it may not be an absolute transliteration, but one in which the word is brought into the language and adapted.
One aspect that interests me is whether one should see a situation where Latin, Greek and Hebrew have been used - arrhaphos from erhabon, lention from linteum, - in association with Jesus' passion. Thus, not only is the inscription above him written in Hebrew, Latin and Greek; but the doctrinally important matter of the garments associated is also in those three languages.
So, is lention a Greek word, or a Latin word brought into Greek through the usual methods of adaptation, or is it a transliteration ?