Questions tagged [latin]

Questions relating to Latin translations of biblical texts, most commonly the Vulgate.

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Is Jesus in Matthew 23:37 quoting 2 Esdras 1:30?

O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her ...
Daniel Dahlberg's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers

Why do the Renaissance era English Bible translations prefer the word "devils" rather than "demons"? [closed]

Tyndale Bible, Geneva Bible, King James Bible, and Douay Rheims Bible (all from the same era) prefer to use the word "devils" (or an earlier variation such as "deuils"). The ...
user12711's user avatar
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1 vote
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Luke 12:1 Vulgate Text: "adtendite a fermento Pharisaeorum quae est hypocrisis"

This might not be the right forum to ask, but I couldn't think of a better one. If it is deemed unacceptable, I apologize in advance. I was reading Luke the other day, and inspired by the curiosity to ...
R.P.'s user avatar
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5 votes
5 answers

Deuteronomy 29:19 - Interpretations and translations

I study Latin and I don't understand this sentence "absumat ebria sitientem", found in Deuteronomy 29:19 Context (just before the sentence): because when such a person hears the words of ...
Quidam's user avatar
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Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?

Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22? obedientia [υπακοή] caritatis [αληθείας = "of the truth"] He uses "non obedire veritati" for "αληθεία μη πείθεσθαι" in Gal. 3:1.
Geremia's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers

A question about the word λεντιον, lention, (linteum ?) in John 13: 4,5

In John 13:4,5 the word λεντιον lention is used - translated 'towel' usually. Young, Strong, Thayer and Liddel & Scott all refer to linteum, a Latin word. For Strong and Thayer, see Biblehub. I ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 vote
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Did Chrysostom's Text Say a "Double Sabbath" was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question: Homilies on Matthew (...
elika kohen's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers

What does the Latin word 'sermo' convey that 'verbum' does not in John 17:17 and John 1:1?

Augustine spoke of Latin MSS (copies of scriptures in Latin) that has 'sermo' instead of 'verbum' in John 17:17 and John 1:1 in his Tractate 108: Finally, He proceeds, and doing so fails not to ...
R. Brown's user avatar
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Jerome’s translation of «κοινωνία» in the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16

In the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16, it is written, calicem benedictionis cui benedicimus nonne communicatio sanguinis Christi est et panis quem frangimus nonne participatio corporis Domini est Why did ...
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