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Compare these three parallel Gospel verses:

Verse KJV Greek Word-for-word
Matthew 24:5 saying, I am Christ λέγοντες Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ Χριστός saying I am the christ
Mark 13:6 saying, I am [Christ] λέγοντες ὅτι Ἐγώ eimi saying that I am
Luke 21:8 saying, I am [Christ] λέγοντες ὃτι Ἐγώ εἰμι saying that I am

In the last two, "[Christ]" was supplied, quite reasonably, based on what Matthew says.

But the translators also decided to supply a comma and omit the "that" that was in the original Greek.

Most other translations do the same, and those that supply them even put "I am Christ" in quotation marks.

To me (a very poor student of Greek) the most accurate translation would be "saying that I am Christ". So, why did so many translators choose to omit the "that" and interpret this as a direct quotation?

(As a further point, note that this is preceded by "shall come in my name", implying that they are claiming to speak on Jesus's behalf, not claiming to be messiahs themselves.)

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  • I agree with @Der Übermensch - it is a simple difference between Greek and English grammar. Most modern translations are more literal than the KJV in this instance.
    – Dottard
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 1:28
  • Not necessary to include (that) it in translation. It means the same.
    – Michael16
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 3:23
  • @Michael16, saying "Jesus is the Christ" does not mean the same as saying "I am the Christ" (unless it is actually Jesus saying it). Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 3:32
  • The point is that they associate themselves with the name Christ but what they say is 'I am' : they speak of themselves and they assert themselves, as Mark and Luke accurately quote as direct speech (oti). But what they are really saying (as Matthew makes clear by indirect speech (no oti) is 'I am Christ'. I am the Head. I am the Master. I am the Global Representative to be totally obeyed. I am Christ on earth. (Thus will it appear towards the end, sitting in the temple of God, manifesting that he is God. ) Up-voted +1. Good question.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 6:07
  • You should have explained your question better. You're asking whether it's possible that Jesus is warning against people who claim "Jesus is Christ", or that their argument maybe something to do with "I AM". Question is about the implication of direct vs indirect speech.
    – Michael16
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 7:57

2 Answers 2

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Greek did not have quotation marks. Writers often used the conjunction ὅτι to introduce [a following statement as] a quotation.

LSJ notes,1

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Many commentators refer to this usage of ὅτι as the “ὅτι recitative.”2 (The author also happens to cite as examples your two verses in question.)

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According to Robert Funk,3

  1. ὅτι used to introduce direct speech (object clauses after verbs of saying):

  2. In summary, ὅτι is never omitted with indirect discourse (in the form in which ὅτι may appear), but it may be used or not, at the discretion of the author, with direct discourse.
Footnotes

        1 LSJ, p. 1265, ὅτι, II.
        2 e.g., Cadbury, p. 140
        3 Funk, §§ 649–650

References

Cadbury, Henry Joel. The Style and Literary Method of Luke. Vol. 1. Cambridge: Harvard UP, 1920.

Funk, Robert. A Beginning-Intermediate Grammar of Hellenistic Greek. Missoula: Scholars Press, 1973.

Liddell, Henry George; Scott, Robert; et al. A Greek-English Lexicon. 9th ed. with revised supplement. Oxford: Clarendon, 1996.

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  • +1. Good answer.
    – Dottard
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 1:28
  • 1
    I'm a bit confused. "ὅτι is never omitted with indirect discourse" means that indirect quotations do use this word, but it "may be used or not … with direct discourse". Are you saying that because Matthew omits the word, it must be a direct quotation by the second rule, and that because in Mark and Luke it is ambiguous and could be direct or indirect, the translators chose direct quotation based on Matthew's usage? Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 3:28
  • 1
    @RayButterworth—“Are you saying that because Matthew omits the word, it must be a direct quotation by the second rule...” - Correct. “and that because in Mark and Luke it is ambiguous and could be direct or indirect, the translators chose direct quotation based on Matthew's usage?” - I can't pretend to know what the translators were thinking. They could have did it that way (comparing the Synoptic parallels). Or maybe how they interpreted the context. Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 5:04
  • Up-voted +1. Very informative and much appreciated.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 6:01
0

The differences in translation in these texts stem from the fact that translators have followed differing Greek manuscripts, the two dominant lines of which are compared in the table below.

Reference Greek Textus Receptus Greek Minority Texts
Mt. 24:5 πολλοὶ γὰρ ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ χριστός καὶ πολλοὺς πλανήσουσιν πολλοὶ γὰρ ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ χριστός καὶ πολλοὺς πλανήσουσιν
Mk. 13:6 πολλοὶ γὰρ ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι καὶ πολλοὺς πλανήσουσιν πολλο ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες ὅτι Ἐγώ εἰμι καὶ πολλοὺς πλανήσουσιν
Lk. 21:8 ὁ δὲ εἶπεν βλέπετε μὴ πλανηθῆτε πολλοὶ γὰρ ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες ὃτι ἐγώ εἰμι καί ὁ καιρὸς ἤγγικεν μὴ οὖν πορευθῆτε ὀπίσω αὐτῶν Ὁ δὲ εἶπεν Βλέπετε μὴ πλανηθῆτε πολλοὶ γὰρ ἐλεύσονται ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου λέγοντες Ἐγώ εἰμι καί Ὁ καιρὸς ἤγγικεν μὴ πορευθῆτε ὀπίσω αὐτῶν

[Note differences in bold.]

The manuscripts agree on Matthew 24:5, and almost agree on Mark 13:6, with the exception of the "gar" ("for") in the TR text. Translational differences in Mark may be related to grammatical differences between Greek and English with respect to the usage of articles, as will be explained more further below.

The Greek word "ὃτι" is the subordinating conjunction "that." This means that "saying that I am (the) Christ" would be the correct translation of the expression in this verse. The "οὖν" which occurs later, present only in the TR text, means "so" or "therefore."

Why do I place the "the" in parentheses just above?

In Greek, articles are used differently from in English. Names are commonly preceded by an article in Greek, e.g. "the John" or "the Peter" or "the Christ." Because this article may sometimes be used for other reasons than simply to denote a name, translators may find it difficult to choose whether to specify an article in English or not. For this reason, many occurrences of "the Christ" in Greek get translated simply as "Christ"; yet some retain the article in translation, i.e. "the Christ." It is important to realize this distinction between Greek and English, and the difficulty inherent to its translation when a particular one, such as THE Messiah, is referenced--where we would use "the" in English. Translators struggle with these articles, and there are times when even the word "that" may come in, as in the following two verses:

And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet? (John 1:25, KJV)

And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God. (John 6:69, KJV)

In both of those verses above, the "that" is not technically present in Greek, but the Greek does have the definite article, as usual, before "Christ."

The original Greek had no case distinction (it was all uppercase), and it lacked punctuation (there were no quotation marks). The capitalization and quotation marks in this expression in the English translation has been added--it has no basis in the underlying text.

Conclusion

The differences in translation are on account of two main reasons. First, there are a few differences in the manuscript copies of the Greek text--accounting for the presence of "that" in Luke 21:8; and secondly, there are differences in translation that have come in as a matter of subjective interpretation on the part of the translators owing to Greek-English grammatical distinctions.

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  • Informative +1, canceling out an odd, anonymous down vote. Thank you.
    – Dieter
    Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 14:59

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