Timeline for Why do translations use "saying 'I am Christ'", when the Greek has "saying that I am Christ"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 11, 2022 at 20:59 | vote | accept | Ray Butterworth | ||
| Nov 15, 2022 at 6:01 | comment | added | Nigel J | Up-voted +1. Very informative and much appreciated. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 5:04 | comment | added | Der Übermensch | @RayButterworth—“Are you saying that because Matthew omits the word, it must be a direct quotation by the second rule...” - Correct. “and that because in Mark and Luke it is ambiguous and could be direct or indirect, the translators chose direct quotation based on Matthew's usage?” - I can't pretend to know what the translators were thinking. They could have did it that way (comparing the Synoptic parallels). Or maybe how they interpreted the context. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 3:28 | comment | added | Ray Butterworth | I'm a bit confused. "ὅτι is never omitted with indirect discourse" means that indirect quotations do use this word, but it "may be used or not … with direct discourse". Are you saying that because Matthew omits the word, it must be a direct quotation by the second rule, and that because in Mark and Luke it is ambiguous and could be direct or indirect, the translators chose direct quotation based on Matthew's usage? | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 1:28 | comment | added | Dottard | +1. Good answer. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 1:20 | history | answered | Der Übermensch | CC BY-SA 4.0 |