John 20:30-31 says the following:
Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.
My question is about the Greek syntax in the phrase highlighted above. Here it is:
Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ Χριστὸς ὁ Υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ
Judging by the English alone I can see two distinct possibilities:
John wrote so that his readers would believe that Jesus is (A) the Christ, and (B) the Son of God (i.e. two distinct identifiers), or
John wrote so that his readers would believe that Jesus is the Christ / Son of God (presenting the two as synonymous)
Which is it?