The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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Multiple conflated sources or literary device in Jesus' Farewell Discourse?

In the Gospel of John, during Jesus' Farewell Discourse during his last meal with his disciples (chapters 13-17), the following statements are present in the account: Simon Peter said to him, ...
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72 views

What did Jesus mean in John 6:26?

Jesus answered them and said, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled. (John 6:26, KJV) When Jesus says ...
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56 views

What is the 'law' in John 19:7

In John 19:7 it says, 7 The Jews answered him, “We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has made himself the Son of God.” What is the law that they are speaking of ...
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108 views

Night is coming, when no one can work

What work is impossible to do in the 'night'? Jesus stated that night is coming, when no one can work. (John 9:4, ESV) The immediate context is that Jesus is healing a blind person. The first ...
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165 views

Does John 14:16 cancel the Trinity?

According to Trinity there is one God in three persons: Allah Jesus Holy Spirit But I have come by a verse from Gospel of John as: John 14:16 "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you ...
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John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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What does “spirit” mean in John 3:6?

What does "spirit" mean in John 3:6 (in bold)? Is it referring to the soul? John 3:6 (ESV) That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. ...
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115 views

Why do the apostles suggest that the blind man could have sinned before his birth in John 9:2?

In John 9, upon seeing the man born blind, his disciples ask Jesus, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”(ESV) Was it a widely held belief among first century ...
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122 views

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic

The dispensational hermeneutic has been summarized as: “Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures,” declared ...
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John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?

In John 15 Jesus uses an example from agriculture to illustrate the relationship between Himself and His disciples: ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ἄμπελος ὑμεῖς τὰ κλήματα ὁ μένων ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ οὗτος φέρει ...
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64 views

According to the Gospel of John Jesus was always known as the Messiah?

The first mention to the title of Messiah (or Christ) in the Gospel of John is from Andrew testifying to Peter right after he met Jesus. John 1:41 He first found his own brother Simon, and said to ...
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133 views

Whose voice is it in Revelation 4:1? (Inconsistent red letter usage)

The first voice, described in Revelation 1:10-11 is heard (and written in red). Then John turns to see who or what is speaking, and sees what is described as Jesus. The words spoken by Jesus (verses ...
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52 views

Where in the torah is, "You people are Elohim”? [duplicate]

In the Christian bible, in John 10:34 Yeshua is quoted: In answer, Yeshua said, "Is there not a saying in your Torah, I have said, 'You people are Elohim [the gods]'"? What is the chapter ...
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81 views

The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
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John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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74 views

Holy Spirit and the forgiving of sins: Who is the subject in John 20:23?

John 20:22-23 KJVS And when he had said this, he breathed on them , and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ...
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52 views

What is the nature of the “last day” in John's gospel (John 6)? [duplicate]

In reference to John 6 and other similiar verses: 6:39 — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the ...
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229 views

Why is the greater love not to lay down one's life for one's *enemies*?

How are we to reconcile the following verses? Jn 15:13: Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends. Mt 5:44,46-47: But I tell you, love your enemies and ...
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In the New Testament, What is the Origin of “Believe In” and “Believe Into”?

Is there any Extra-Biblical source, (in Classical Greek, or Semitic sources), or a syntactical rule, behind the construction: ["πιστεύων ἐν" and "πιστεύων εἰς" + "Some Leader"]* — Or, is this ...
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527 views

Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20

Being the Easter season I was reading this section a couple weeks ago and noticed something. I'm not sure if the passage is saying Jesus had actual holes or marks in his hands and/or side. All I can ...
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166 views

The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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“for my thirst they gave me sour wine” and anything else?

He said, "I thirst". (John 19:28) They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me sour wine to drink. (Psalm 69:21) So, now John compares "I thirst" with Psalm, so now my doubt ...
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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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172 views

What are possible historical interpretations of John 1:1?

This question is inspired by a question about the proper translation of John 1:1.1 There are lengthy debates on how to translate the Johanine prologue properly.2 This is not about that debate. Based ...
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72 views

John: A lack of “wisdom” in Wisdom literature?

In a series of lecture videos on The Gospel of John, Ben Witherington III proposes to treat the gospel along the lines of wisdom literature. He says: It’s my view that one of the things that makes ...
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760 views

Why does Jesus tell the Samaritan woman to “Go, call your husband”?

When the Samaritan woman finally accepts Jesus' offer of living water, he says to her: "Go, call your husband and come here." (John 4:16) Why doesn't Jesus just give her his living water? The new ...
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162 views

What might “on the third day” stand for in John 2:1?

John 2 (Amplified Bible): 1 On the third day there was a wedding at Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 Jesus also was invited with His disciples to the wedding. I have ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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Are there any clues as to the nature of the man's blindness in John 9?

This weekend I heard somebody build a case for a theological position based in part of the kind of healing given to the blind man in John 9. [John 9:1, NET] Now as Jesus was passing by, he saw a ...
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Was Jesus crucified naked?

John 19:23 When the soldiers crucified Jesus, they took his clothes, dividing them into four shares, one for each of them, with the undergarment remaining. This garment was seamless, woven ...
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John 16:12 - What were the “many things”?

In John 16:12, it is written, I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear [them] now. Ἕτι πολλὰ ἔχω λέγειν ὑμῖν ἀλλ᾽ οὐ δύνασθε βαστάζειν ἄρτι (Textus Receptus, 1550) Does ...
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What is “that day” in John 14:20?

What is "that day" in John 14:20: At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you. ἐν ἐκείνῃ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ γνώσεσθε ὑμεῖς ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρί μου καὶ ὑμεῖς ἐν ἐμοὶ ...
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What does “Grace upon grace” mean?

For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. (John 1:16, ESV) I am curious as to the meaning of "grace upon grace." I have read this as "grace for grace" in other bible ...
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Question regarding John 12:32 [duplicate]

In John 12:32 (ESV) Jesus says, And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people (πάντας, pantas) to myself. I made the following statement to someone who is seeking to qualify ...
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Does the Greek of John 20:28 address two persons or one?

I don't know Greek and even less about rules of Greek grammar. Can somebody please help me by reviewing a statement written by a popular Unitarian? Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my ...
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John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?

In John 1:16, it is written, And we all received from his fullness, and grace in place of grace. καὶ ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος What is "the ...
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John 14:14 in P75

I apologize if this is the wrong place to ask, but, I understand that P75 and P66 are the oldest attestations of the word me in John 14:14: "If you ask me for anything in my name, I will do it" NIV ...
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John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?

In John 1:35, it is written, Τῇ ἐπαύριον πάλιν εἱστήκει ὁ Ἰωάννης καὶ ἐκ τῶν μαθητῶν αὐτοῦ δύο which is translated as, On the day after, John, and two of his disciples, had been standing ...
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Where was Jesus when he received word of Lazarus' illness?

John 11:6 has Jesus receiving word of Lazarus' illness and then staying put for two days. When Jesus reaches Bethany, Lazarus has been dead for four days (11:17). So when the messengers reached Jesus ...
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861 views

Why does Jesus say, “Very truly I tell you”?

I'm studying philosophy of religion and I was just wondering if anyone could tell me why, in the fourth sign in John's gospel especially (feeding of the five thousand), he constantly says, "Very truly ...
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Did the sister of Lazarus anoint Jesus with perfume once, or twice?

I am not re-asking this question or this question, which concern the absolute number of times Jesus was anointed with perfume. I'm asking about a confusing fact from the Gospel of John, by itself, ...
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234 views

Does Spiritual blindness mean not knowing God's Word?

What does this verse mean? Jesus said, "If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin; but now that you claim you can see, your guilt remains." (John 9:41, NIV) Does it imply that ...
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Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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“Overcome” vs “comprehend” in John 1:5

John 1:5 reads in the ESV: The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference: And the light shineth in ...
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274 views

What is the cause of the “greater sin” in John 19:11?

In Jesus’ conversation with Pilate in John 19:11, responding to his question, “Don’t you know that I have the authority….to crucify you?” Jesus answers: “You would have no authority over me at all ...
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166 views

Who said “of them which thou gavest me have I lost none”?

In John 18:9 Jesus (or John) says: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none. This apparently alludes to the saying which Jesus pronounced in ...
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216 views

John 14:2, why “dwelling places” in NABRE

Two translations of John 14:2. In my Father’s house there are many dwelling places. If there were not, would I have told you that I am going to prepare a place for you? (NABRE) In my ...
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Jesus is the Bread of life

I have read chapter 6 of the Gospel of John, regarding bread of life and eating of His flesh. Can you help me with what the proper interpretation should be?. John 6:51 (ESV) "I am the living ...