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Tagged with source-criticism greek
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Why does Matthew use the Greek word 'seismos' in Matt. 8:24 instead of the 'lailaps' which is used in Mk 4:37 and Lk 8:23?
Matthew uses the Greek word 'seismos' (σεισμὸς) in 8:24. This word is used 9 times in the NT and 8 of the 9 times it is translated as "earthquake." In Matthew 8:24 most translations ...
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1
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3
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Why Hebrew in Acts 21:37-40
Why Did Paul use Hebrew in Acts 21:37-40?
Does His use of Hebrew in this passage indicate or prove that Jesus taught in Aramaic or Hebrew and that the gospels only contain the voice of Jesus and not ...
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