When Jesus mentioned paradise in Luke 23:43,
43 and Jesus said to him, `Verily I say to thee, To-day with me thou shalt be in the paradise.' (YLT)
is it possible that he meant Abraham's bosom, as described in Luke 16:22-25?
22 `And it came to pass, that the poor man died, and that he was carried away by the messengers to the bosom of Abraham -- and the rich man also died, and was buried; 23 and in the hades having lifted up his eyes, being in torments, he doth see Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom, 24 and having cried, he said, Father Abraham, deal kindly with me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and may cool my tongue, because I am distressed in this flame. 25 `And Abraham said, Child, remember that thou did receive -- thou -- thy good things in thy life, and Lazarus in like manner the evil things, and now he is comforted, and thou art distressed; (YLT)
- Luke 16:19-31 Lazarus and the rich man - literal, allegorical or a mixture of both?
- Comma? "Verily I say unto thee today, ..." or "Verily I say unto thee, today..."
- Were Jesus (Luke 23:43) & Paul (2 Corinthians 12:1-4) referring to the same 'paradise'?
- Is there another explanation for the 'contradiction' on Luke 23:43, John 20:17 instead an incorrect translation?