2

We find textual variants in English bibles (NASB, ESV, NRSV, NIV) when compared to the KJV which states in Matthew 16:20 :

[20] Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was [Jesus] the Christ.

When Matthew 16:20 is read in NASB, we don’t find Jesus :

Then He gave the disciples strict orders that they were to tell no one that He was [the Christ].

When Matthew 16:20 is read in ESV, we don’t find Jesus :

Then he strictly charged the disciples to tell no one that he was [the Christ].

When Matthew 16:20 is read in NRSV, we don’t find Jesus :

Then he sternly ordered the disciples not to tell anyone that he was [the Messiah].

When Matthew 16:20 is read in NIV, we don’t find Jesus :

Then he ordered his disciples not to tell anyone that he was [the Messiah].

Why do English bibles remove the word “Jesus” from “Jesus the Christ” in Matthew 16:20?

3
  • 2
    The TR states :τοτε διεστειλατο τοις μαθηταις αυτου ινα μηδενι ειπωσιν οτι αυτος εστιν ιησους ο χριστος. The KJV has 'Jesus the Christ'. The other translations you mention are Westcott&Hort/Nestle Aland Greek texts. See Scrivener's Annotated Text for the additions, deletions and omissions (9,000 of them) between the TR and WH/NA text.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Nov 16, 2020 at 13:34
  • 2
    we don’t find Jesus... we don’t find Jesus... we don’t find Jesus... we don’t find Jesus - We don't find UFOs there either; what seems to be the problem ? What on earth gave you the idea we should find Jesus there in the first place ? The KJV ? You are aware that the New Testament was not originally written in English, yes ? (In your defense, the Wikipedia article on the subject does not explicitly list 16:20 there either).
    – Lucian
    Commented Nov 16, 2020 at 14:20
  • 1
    For all such textual matters you should consult UBS5 and NA28 - they list all the variations in the Greek MSS and why various version have selected the text they do.
    – Dottard
    Commented Nov 16, 2020 at 21:00

1 Answer 1

4

Some Greek manuscripts have it and some don't.

Pulpit Commentary

That they should tell no man that he (au)to) was [Jesus] the Christ. The received text inserts the word "Jesus," but very many good manuscripts omit it; and it seems to have been received by inadvertence, the point being that he was Messiah.

Barnes' Notes on the Bible

The word "Jesus" is wanting in many manuscripts, and should probably be omitted: "Then he charged them strictly to tell no man that he was the Christ or Messiah."

Benson Commentary

he was Jesus the Christ — The word Jesus is omitted here in many MSS., some of which are of great authority and great antiquity, and in several ancient versions, and the omission is approved of by some eminent critics. Certainly the insertion of it is superfluous, and apparently improper: for the context shows, that what our Lord forbade them to tell was simply that he was the Christ, that is, the Messiah, or, as Luke expresses it, the Christ of God.

The consensus of the scholars agrees that the word "Jesus" here is superfluous.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.