We find textual variants in English bibles (NASB, ESV, NRSV, NIV) when compared to the KJV which states in Matthew 16:20 that : 20 Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was [Jesus] the Christ.
[20] Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was [Jesus] the Christ.
When Matthew 16:20 is read in NASBNASB, we don’t find Jesus : Then He gave the disciples strict orders that they were to tell no one that He was the Christ.
Then He gave the disciples strict orders that they were to tell no one that He was [the Christ].
When Matthew 16:20 is read in ESVESV, we don’t find Jesus : 20 Then he strictly charged the disciples to tell no one that he was the Christ.
Then he strictly charged the disciples to tell no one that he was [the Christ].
When Matthew 16:20 is read in NRSVNRSV, we don’t find Jesus : 20 Then he sternly ordered the disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Messiah.
Then he sternly ordered the disciples not to tell anyone that he was [the Messiah].
When Matthew 16:20 is read in NIVNIV, we don’t find Jesus : 20 Then he ordered his disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Messiah.
Then he ordered his disciples not to tell anyone that he was [the Messiah].
Why do English bibles remove the word “Jesus” from “Jesus the Christ” in Matthew 16:20?