Οὐ πᾶσα σὰρξ ἡ αὐτὴ σάρξ· ἀλλὰ ἄλλη μὲν ἀνθρώπων, ἄλλη δὲ σὰρξ κτηνῶν, ἄλλη δὲ ἰχθύων, ἄλλη δὲ πτηνῶν. (RP2005)
What might be the best way to translate the idiom "κτηνῶν"
Paul's single use of the word "ktEnOn" (#2934) in 1Cor 15:39 [used elsewhere by other authors]; many translations read this as "a beast" but oddly enough, this word is related to "ktasthai" (#2931; "to acquire") [accordoing to Spiros Zodhiates, for one]
The only translation I've found so far that sort of captures this is "The Writ" by Dabhar, which reads it as ..."acquiring-animals" ... [which sounds sort of silly]
However, the word "animals" is already in use (in many translations) by the Greek word "zwon" (Strong's #2226; Goodrick/ Kohlenberger #2442); that is, there's no "zwon" in "ktEnOn" So what we must have here, is a cultural idiom of some sort, where the thought of acquired domestic animals has been imposed upon this word, a word that literally only deals with "acquiring"
So, if we're stuck with having to convey, in translation, this word's idiom meaning, and since we can't concordantly use "animals," then what about using "acquired-livestock" for "κτηνῶν"
Addendum:
As noted, Liddell and Scott, "An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon," does indicate that this idiom seems to have been used, because the accumulation of flocks and herds, constituted wealth, so translating it with the English word "domesticated-" is logical, but as noted above, the word "animals" is already being used by another Greek word, so the reading of "domesticated-animals," is not only a misapplication of the word "animals," but it also ignores the inherent meaning of "acquired."
It's also been suggested that it's a fallacy, to imagine that a word's actual usage must reflect the etymology, perhaps so, but since there was no attempt to "show the work" behind this subjective claim, let's at least try to do so. And, another comment suggested that an attempt to actually reflect the etymology, might introduce confusion, rather than clarification. Perhaps so, but again there was no attempt to "show the work," in support of this objection. Therefore, both of these are not only weak objections, but the word choice of "domesticated-animals" does itself, introduce confusion, and barely hints at the actual etymology of the word. Consulting lexicons is always a good idea, but some independent logical thinking isn't a bad idea, either.
So the question still stands,
What might be the best way to translate the idiom "κτηνῶν"
15:39* Not every flesh [be] the same flesh; but, another [flesh], indeed, of~men; yet, another flesh of~acquired-livestock; yet, another of~fish, yet, another of~flyers. (~Robin)
[Note: The asterisk indicates that there's source text variants, which in this case involve a syntax re-arrangement ("δὲ πτηνῶν" with "δὲ ἰχθύων"), and the addition of the word "flesh" (σὰρξ; "a~fkesh of~flyers)
I favor the Byzantine Greek source texts, but I can see why WH felt compelled to add the word flesh, there at the end of the verse, to sort of balance things out. However, if WH were intent on balance, then why didn't they add the word flesh more consistently? Balance is nice; I, too, felt compelled to add the word flesh, but thought this only worked when referring to the flesh of men ... I did so, because this ellipsis is rather obvious, and, because "[flesh]" of men, appears to be necessary for claification ...right after that first "flesh" is introduced?