Does Hebrews 2:3 exclude an apostle from writing Hebrews?

Question

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Apostles) that heard him (Yeshua);

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

Answer 1

Irrespective of the two possible interpretations of verse 3 that you suggest, nothing in verse 3 (or verses 2-4) alone, as you are asking, excludes Peter from being the author of Hebrews.

The audience, as indicated in verse 3, are those unto whom the great salvation (τηλικαύτης σωτηρίας) that at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου) was confirmed (ἐβεβαιώθη). Whatever this group is, ἡμᾶς in verse 3 indicates that the author felt that he (or even she), too, was a member of it.

If this group is understood to represent the Jews, then any Jew could have written the Epistle; if the original 12 Apostles, then any one of the 11 surviving Apostles; if the expanded group of Apostles, including Paul and the Seventy (Luke 10:1-24), then any one of these; etc.

Only if we could somehow reduce those unto whom the great salvation was confirmed down to a group of persons that does not include Peter could we say that Hebrews 2:3 excludes the possibility that Peter wrote the Epistle. I don't believe this is possible.

Answer 2

The salvation spoken of, in Hebrews 2:2-4, is that which the writer warns of being neglected. He does not warn of the neglect of that which preceded it.

For that was the temptation, to revert to that which was precedent.

Thus I believe that the salvation spoken of is that which is revealed, specifically, in the passion of Christ, as such. It is this that was, first, spoken, by Christ himself, both before and after he suffered; and it is this that was heard by certain, of whom the writer is not one.

For he is one of those to whom it is confirmed, not one of those who heard, "this salvation".

Peter heard. Paul had it confirmed. Thus only Paul is in view as one of the possible writers.

If Mark is the young man spoken of, who left his garment and fled, then Mark did, also, not write Hebrews, I would say.

Nigel.