Return to Question

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

 

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

 

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

 

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Apostles) that heard him (Yeshua);

 

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

 

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

 

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Apostles) that heard him (Yeshua);

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Aposltes) that heard him (Yeshua);

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Apostles) that heard him (Yeshua);

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html

The Greek of Hebrews 2:2-4 says:

εἰ γὰρ ὁ δι’ ἀγγέλων λαληθεὶς λόγος ἐγένετο βέβαιος, καὶ πᾶσα παράβασις καὶ παρακοὴ ἔλαβεν ἔνδικον μισθαποδοσίαν

πῶς ἡμεῖς ἐκφευξόμεθα τηλικαύτης ἀμελήσαντες σωτηρίας; ἥτις ἀρχὴν λαβοῦσα λαλεῖσθαι διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου, ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη,

συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος τοῦ Θεοῦ σημείοις τε καὶ τέρασιν καὶ ποικίλαις δυνάμεσιν καὶ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου μερισμοῖς κατὰ τὴν αὐτοῦ θέλησιν.

The traditional interpretation of this passage (with interpolation):

For if the word spoken by angels (angels?) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (Yeshua), and was confirmed unto us (the Christians) by them (Aposltes) that heard him (Yeshua);

God also bearing them (Apostles) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

The KJV with my interpolation:

For if the word spoken by angels (messangers/prophets) was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;

How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord (YHVH), and was confirmed unto us (the Jewish people) by them (messengers/prophets) that heard him (YHVH);

God also bearing them (the prophets) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Does anything about this text explicitly exclude Peter from being the author of Hebrews?

I'm asking because I'm interested in the idea that Peter wrote Hebrews:

jeffreybowman.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html