We seem to have another theme of being "bought" in Deuteronomy 32 as opposed to being bought by the blood of Jesus. I am aware of the other question on this site for 2 Peter 2:1, yet this question is different because it brings in the reconciling of another verse that needs some interpreting. I will lay out the text at hand:
5 “They have corrupted themselves; They are not His children, Because of their blemish: A perverse and crooked generation.
6 Do you thus deal with the Lord, O foolish and unwise people? Is He not your Father, who bought you? Has He not made you and established you?
7 “Remember the days of old, Consider the years of many generations. Ask your father, and he will show you; Your elders, and they will tell you:
8 When the Most High divided their inheritance to the nations, When He separated the sons of Adam, He set the boundaries of the peoples According to the number of the children of Israel.
9 For the Lord’s portion is His people; Jacob is the place of His inheritance.
Traditionally, Israel in the OT has been called "God's son", and God would call Himself their Father, examples:(Exodus 4:22, 1 Chronicles 29:10)
"Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the Lord: “Israel is My son, My firstborn." (Exodus 4:22)
"Therefore David blessed the Lord before all the assembly; and David said: “Blessed are You, Lord God of Israel, our Father, forever and ever." (1 Chronicles 29:10)
Yet in Deuteronomy 32:5 we have a clear distinction that certain people are not His(God's) children.
That being said, in verse 6 we read from the pen of Moses:
"Is He not your Father, who bought you?"
This "bought" term seems to imply that God "bought" Israel out of bondage from Egypt. Deuteronomy seems to be using the term "bought" in a historical redemptive sense and not a salvific sense. The proof of the pudding is in v.5 as previously noted,
"They are not His children" (v.5)
Given that 1st and 2nd Peter use a multitude of OT imagery and OT stories, is it possible that 2 Peter 2:1 is in reference to being bought in the historical sense, as being descendants of the Israelis who came out of Egypt and not bought in the salvific sense? (I read Deuteronomy 32:1-4 as well for context)
I ask because we read also from Paul:
"For they are not all Israel who are of Israel"
(Meaning: Not all who are in Israel are the true people of God, Romans 9:1-13)
Then following down to 2 Peter 2:1, we read:
"But there were also false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift destruction."
Given this context, it is obvious that "false teachers" being among the congregations that Peter was addressing would not be His children, since Christ gives (true) pastors and teachers to His church (Ephesians 4:11) Not only that, but 2 Peter 2:1 doesn't mention them becoming a false teacher, but rather that they ARE false teachers who are coming amongst them.
My question is: How do we reconcile Deuteronomy 32:5-9 with 2 Peter 2:1? Put my question another way: Can we have any contextual/historical certainty that Deuteronomy 32:6 and 2 Peter 2:1 are on the same topic of "boughtness"?