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Colossians 1:15 (NASB)

He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation:

What support is there from the Old Testament to interpret this statement in the New Testament?

There are numerous verses prophesying the coming of the Messiah/Christ (whom Jesus was the evident fulfillment). These are Old Testament messianic prophecies. Consider some examples...

Isaiah 9:6 (NASB)

For a Child will be born to us, a Son will be given to us;
And the government will rest on His shoulders;
And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.

Malachi 3:1 (NASB)

“Behold, I am sending My messenger, and he will clear a way before Me. And the Lord, whom you are seeking, will suddenly come to His temple; and the messenger of the covenant, in whom you delight, behold, He is coming,” says the Lord of armies.

This is no small matter, why are we told about this "first-born" aspect 460 years later in the New Testament? If Jesus is the first-born of all creation and he was created by God the Father, then why is this not ever mentioned in the Old Testament?

Genesis 1:26 (NASB, emphasis added)

Then God said, “Let Us make mankind in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the livestock and over all the earth, and over every crawling thing that crawls on the earth.”

If Jesus is included in Genesis 1:26, then in what respect is He "the first-born of all creation 460 years later in the New Testament? How is this an Old Testament prophecy fulfilled in the New Testament?

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    There are more. Revelation 3:14 ("beginning of the creation of God") and Proverbs 8:22 ("I was created at the beginning, the first of His works of old") are passages which support the understanding that Jesus was created by God before all other things, as His firstborn Son.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 2:35
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    Great question.
    – Austin
    Commented Aug 15 at 7:03
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    @C.Stroud - In regards to Proverbs 8:22, the ESV, NKJV, and other translations have done a terrible disservice to their readers by warping the Word of God. The Hebrew and Greek says "created" and not "possessed", as the surrounding context of the passage confirms ("...YHWH created Me at the beginning of His work, as the first of His acts of old"). This puts the Trinitarian translators in an uncomfortable place. Despite actually admitting "created" in the footnotes, they do damage control anyway by intentionally corrupting the text to accommodate their false doctrine.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 15:15
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    Jesus does not appear in the Hebrew bible, nor does John Smith, or Mohammed Commented Aug 15 at 15:18
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    There is a Greek word used in the Bible for "firstborn" but there is also a Greek word for "first created". The Greek word for "first created" is never applied to Christ Jesus. I wonder why that is?
    – Lesley
    Commented Aug 19 at 6:23

9 Answers 9

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Short Answer: I don't see clear evidence in the Old Testament that Jesus is the first-born of all creation in the sense of actually being created by God the Father. In fact I see some evidence that may say otherwise.


Something that we know based on previous uses of the word is that “firstborn” (πρωτότοκος) often signifies preeminence in rank rather than the order of creation.

Firstborn (the ancient Greek word prototokos) can describe either:

  1. Priority in time
  2. Supremacy in rank

The Greek word prototokos, which is translated as firstborn, can refer to different things. It could refer either to something or someone that is first in order of time, such as a firstborn child, or it could refer to someone who is preeminent in rank. Or it could refer to someone who was both firstborn and preeminent in rank. It all depends upon the context. (Blueletterbible)

If we look at Psalm 89:27 in the Old Testament, we see that it indicates a status of highest honor, not necessarily the first to be created:

Also I will make him My firstborn, The highest of the kings of the earth.

Here, "firstborn" is used to describe a figure of highest honor among kings.


This makes sense in light of Micah 5:2 which explains the coming of the messiah:

2 “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Though you are little among the thousands of Judah, Yet out of you shall come forth to Me The One to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth are from of old, From everlasting.”

Jesus is described as "coming forth" yet also as eternal (Micah 5:2, John 1:1), which is an attribute of God alone.


Colossians 1:16-17 also give the idea of preeminence and the eternal existence of Christ.

For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.

By philosophical principals we know that the creator must necessarily be greater than the creation. Jesus, in this case, as the creator, being the source of all that the creation is and has, is inherently greater because without the creator, the creation would not exist.

If Jesus is the creator of all things, He must be greater than everything that exists, which means He cannot be part of creation.


Preeminence Over the Dead:

We also wee that Jesus is the "first born" from the dead:

Revelation 1:5 - and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler over the kings of the earth.

To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood,

What we see is that the full revelation of Jesus’ divine nature and role in creation was progressively revealed and more fully explained in the New Testament.

The Old Testament prophecies and theophanies provided a foundation that the New Testament writers, under divine inspiration, built upon to reveal the fullness of Jesus’ identity.

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    Excellent answer. Up-voted +1.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Aug 15 at 4:23
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    @Joshua B, And how could anyone ignore Proverbs 1:20: "Wisdom calls aloud in the street, SHE raises HER voice in the public squares . . ." This PROVES that Jesus is transgender, right?
    – Dieter
    Commented Aug 16 at 0:58
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    @Dieter, with respect to God, the ultimate masculine, all are female. Consider how the masculine Israel is referred to as a feminine whore of a bride in Hos 4:15. Even God himself describes himself in feminine terminology in Is 49:15, and Jesus in Matthew 23:37. Thus there is no problem with the sexless wisdom being described in feminine terminology via symbolic language even if it is later manifest as a male human.
    – Austin
    Commented Aug 16 at 7:31
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    @Dieter You said, "Wisdom calls aloud in the street, SHE raises HER voice in the public squares . . ." This PROVES that Jesus is transgender, right?" Come on Dieter, think? If you want to use that form of reasoning then answer me this? Psalms 9:14 referring to God. "He will cover you with his feathers, and under his wings you will find refuge." So Dieter, is God a bird? When did you abandon your common sense?
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 17 at 14:56
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    No Dieter, Jesus is not transgender in the Bible, and I don't mean the way the word is used today. In fact the word itself was invented in 1974. The whole book of Proverbs is about wisdom, as stated at Proverbs 1:1. It is not about Jesus. 1 Corinthians 1:24, "but to those who are called , both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God." This is not teaching that Jesus is Wisdom. It's teaching God used "wisdom" in sending Christ for our salvation. And at vs26 Paul makes the point that the Cross was considered foolish by many. God's call was readily heard by the weak.
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 17 at 18:59
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Does Paul say that He is "first created of all creation"? No, he does not! What Paul does say is that He is the "first born of all creation", in which sentence the verbs "being born" - τίκτω - and "being created" - κτίζω - are differentiated. If you will hear a phrase: "Shiloh is Brad Pitt's natural child, first born of all those adopted by him", it does not mean that Shiloh is enlisted among the adopted children of Brad Pitt, Shiloh being Brad's biological child, rather it means that Shiloh is born prior to the moment when all those other children were adopted.

In this way, Paul clearly separates the Son, Christ, who is born (τίκτω) from the things that are not born but created (κτίζω), and says plainly that Christ is not to be listed together with the created things, moreover, it is absolutely clear from the continuation of the verse, which says that the entirety of the creation, that is to say, everything that is created, either visible or invisible - which excludes anything that is uncreated - was created by and in Christ (Col 1:16), which makes Christ the instrument of creation of all, that is to say, the condition of existence of all creatures, therefore, in no way enlisted inside the class of the created things - visible and invisible, like angelic hosts.

Those who want to make Christ a creature must assert that Father can create without Him, but for some inscrutable reason, first created Him and then also the universe, but already through Him; like, for instance, God established sex for creating new humans, but could do without and create also directly, like He created Adam; similarly, the old and modern Arians affirm that Logos/Christ is not at all necessary instrument/means for Father to create the universe, but He first created this instrument and then through it also the universe, the mentioned instrument being thus a part of the created order with a possibility that Father can create more instruments, that is to say, more of His Logos-es and … but begone with those mythologies, and conclude that since Christ (Logos) is ontologically necessary for Father to create, then Christ cannot be but co-Creator with the Father and thus uncreated.

Again, uncreated in the Biblical perspective is only Creator, and therefore Christ is also Creator alongside with the Creator-Father, featuring as the Father's Son as born from Him, and as co-Creator of the entirety of the created order, visible and invisible, in a joint creating work with the Father.

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Answer

The Old Testament contains one verse that says Jesus is like the only son and like the first-born for the Jews in Jerusalem!

But there is no sense of Him actually being created!

Explanation

In fact this is a prophecy for the future in Prophet Zechariah’s book. Let us see that:

“And I will pour on the house of David, and on those living in Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of prayers. And they shall look on Me whom they have pierced; and they shall mourn for Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they shall be bitter over Him, like the bitterness over the FIRST-BORN” (Zech 12:10).

This is Yahweh speaking. He says they shall look upon Me (Yahweh) whom they have pierced. But actually in history it was Jesus who was pierced.

So we see all the things clearly together here:

Jesus Christ (Yahweh pierced), only Son (only begotten) and First-born (prototokos).

But we do not see any implication that Jesus (Yahweh) is created in Zechariah 12:10.

So, 460 years before itself, Yahweh has made it abundantly clear that He will be incarnated, pierced and will be considered as the Only Son and the First-born!

Jesus is never created

Jesus is never created.

Proof # 1: -

“And again, when He brought the First-born into the world, He said, "And let all the angels of God worship Him" (Heb 1:6).

If Jesus was a created being, then he is not and cannot be the first-born, simply because angels were existing before him!

Let us read it again: when God the Father created and brought the first-born Jesus into existence, angels were already around to obey God and worship Jesus.

But, the Unitarians claim that Jesus created “all (other) things”! [‘other’ is added by them; it is not in the Scripture].

This is a contradiction and an unsolvable vicious circle.

Jesus needs to be the first-created. So, no angels should be around because Jesus is supposed to be creating the angels. However, when the Father created and brought His first-created son, by mistake, all angels were around to worship him.

Proof # 2:-

“because whom He foreknew, He also predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son, for Him TO BE the First-born among many brothers” (Rom 8:29).

What?!

If Jesus is the first-created, then it doesn’t matter whether others are conformed to Him or not. Even if others are not around, still Jesus will be the first-created.

But here the Scripture states that God the Father foreknew some, predestinated them to be conformed to Jesus SO THAT Jesus WOULD BECOME the First-born among many brothers!

So, if brothers are not around, Jesus cannot be the First-born and the first-created!

Proof # 3:-

“But you have come……… to the general assembly and church of the first-born who are written in Heaven………and to Jesus” (Heb 12:22-24).

Church of the first-born simply means church of the saints who are called out. But we know that the saints cannot be the first-born because Adam was the first-created human being. The saints are not the first-borns/ first-created.

So, it becomes very clear that church of the first-born means the church of the saints who are going to be resurrected from the dead as the first-fruit of the entire humanity (James 1:18).

That’s it!

Jesus is called First-born because He is the first One ever to break the shackles of death and be resurrected to eternal life from among the dead!

First-born ≠ First-created but First-born = First-resurrected

First-born does NOT mean first-created. The Scripture says otherwise!

Hebrew 12:23 talks about “the church of the first-born ones”.

These first-born saints in the church CANNOT BE FIRST-CREATED ONES because the Scripture says ADAM AND EVE ARE THE FIRST-CREATED ONES.

This proves beyond any doubt that first-born does not and cannot mean first-created.

Same way, when Jesus is called the First-born, He is NOT the first created. He is the Creator because without Him nothing was created as per the same Scripture.

First-born means resurrected from the dead as shown below:

“for Him to be the First-born among many brothers” (Rom 8:29).

“And He is the Head of the body, the church, who is the Beginning, the First-born from the dead, that He may be pre-eminent in all things” (Col 1:18).

“even from Jesus Christ the faithful Witness, the First-born from the dead” (Rev 1:5).

Let the Scripture define and qualify its own term.

Col. 1:15 - First-born of all creation?

There is no need for people to jump to hasty conclusions. They think that Jesus is the first ever creature by God the Father when the verse doesn’t say anything of that sort.

We can see that some versions have the same as “the firstborn of every creature”.

So, what exactly is this reference, “all creation”, “every creature” alluding to? Is it referring to the Genesis creation of the heavens and the earth?

Not at all!

The “all creation” or “every creature” in Greek is “pas ktisis”. "Pas ktisis" is always related to "human beings".

It has nothing to do with Genesis creation of everything.

So, Jesus cannot be the first ever creature when God the Father has made nothing without Jesus Christ:

“All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being” (John 1:3).

[I have never seen any verse in the Scripture as powerfully stated as this!]

All creation/every creature [pas ktisis] = human beings

In fact, Scripture refers “pas ktisis” in reference to human beings as I will prove below:

Evidence # 1

“And He said to them, Going into all the world, preach the gospel to all the creation [pas ktisis]” (Mark 16:15).

This is Jesus’ final command to His disciples. Yet we know that the apostles never preached the Gospel to mountains, oceans, dogs or animals!

They preached the Gospel only to human beings (all creation/ every creature/ pas ktisis).

Evidence # 2

“However, you must remain firmly established and steadfast in the faith, without being moved from the hope of the gospel that you heard, which has been proclaimed to every creature (pas ktisis) under heaven and of which I, Paul, have become a servant” (Col 1:23).

The Colossians heard the gospel being preached to “every creature/ all creation/ pas ktisis” of which Paul became a servant.

Yet we know that neither the Twelve apostles nor Paul ever preached the gospel to any inanimate creation or animals. It was preached only to human beings.

So, Jesus is the Firstborn from among the human beings who are all destined to die. This is why the Scripture calls Him as the First-born from the dead.

First-born = First-fruit

Jesus is called the First-born in the sense that He is the First-fruit from the dead humans.

“But now Christ has risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruit of those who slept” (1 Cor 15:20).

“But each in his own order: Christ the first-fruit, and afterward they who are Christ's at His coming” (verse 23). The latter are called “a kind of firstfruits of His creatures” (James 1:18).

Now, the conclusion

Conclusion

The saints are called “the church of the first-borns” (Heb 12:23) though none of them are created before Adam and Eve. They are called “first-fruits” of human beings, though none of them preceded Adam or Eve.

Thus, we learn that first-born simply means first-fruit from the dead.

So, Jesus Christ as the First-fruit of the first-fruits = First-born of the first-borns FROM THE DEAD HUMANITY.

Neither the pre-Incarnated Yahweh nor the Incarnated Jesus (both are the same Person) is created.

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  • +1 Excellent Biblical analysis of Colossians 1:15 with solid proof.
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 17 at 17:13
  • @Mr.Bond - Thank you for the up-vote; appreciate your encouragement. I have added the reference of Colossians 1:15 in the post. It wasn't there. Again, thanks for bringing it to my attention! Commented Aug 17 at 17:34
  • @NepheshRoi - Doesn't Hebrew 1:6 imply that God brought his already firstborn Son into the world? That is, God brought his first-created spirit Son into the world to incarnate into human flesh, as per John 3:16 and Philippians 2:6? Romans 8:29 then implies that Jesus is the firstborn among many heavenly brothers (elect angels) and the firstborn among many earthly brothers from the dead (elect humans). Does this make sense to you?
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 17 at 19:53
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    @Joshua B – Good imagination. But first-born does not mean first created. Commented Aug 18 at 16:14
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    @Joshua B – The saints of God are called the “church of the first-born ones”. But Adam and Eve are the first created human beings, according to the Scripture. So, the saints cannot be the first created. But they are first-borns (first to be resurrected) from the dead. So, clearly first-born does not mean first created. Commented Aug 18 at 17:19
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Supreme Over All Creation
Colossians 1:15

who is image of the unseen God, firstborn of all creation (Darby)
He is the visible image of the invisible God. He is supreme over all creation (CJB)

Firstborn, πρωτότοκος, usually pertains to birth order. Since it can also pertain to having special status associated with a firstborn, it can be understood as supreme. 1

This sense is also found once in the Old Testament.

Psalm 89

27 He shall say to Me, ‘You are my father, my God, and the rock of my deliverance.’ 28 I will appoint him first-born, highest of the kings of the earth. (NJPS)
27 He will call to me, 'You are my father, my God, the Rock of my salvation.’ 28 I will give him the position of firstborn, the highest of the kings of the earth. (CJB)

The Davidic figure will call God, "father" and God will appoint him the firstborn 2 of kings. The use here is particularly relevant. As the translations show, becoming firstborn was by appointment, not birth. The Hebrew is נָתַן, nāṯan, which means to bestow or to grant, never to create. The Psalm speaks of the Davidic covenant; David was not a first in birth order; nor was he the first king. His position was bestowed; he was appointed.

Understanding πρωτότοκος as supreme agrees with how Paul describes the role in creation.

Colossians 1 (Darby)

16 because in him were created all things, the things in the heavens and the things upon the earth, the visible and the unseen, whether thrones, or lordships, or principalities, or authorities: all things have been created by him and for him. 17 And he is before all, and all things subsist together by him.

Genesis
Paul begins by listing two attributes. The first is, εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου, image of the unseen God. The second is, πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως, supreme of all creation. The two are independent of one another; placing firstborn second reinforces the meaning of supreme. 3 Starting with image of the unseen God recalls Genesis.

Genesis 1:26 (CJB)

Then God said, “Let us make humankind in our image, in the likeness of ourselves; and let them rule over the fish in the sea, the birds in the air, the animals, and over all the earth, and over every crawling creature that crawls on the earth.”

In describing the plan to make man, Genesis also uses two characteristics: image and likeness. Even without image of the unseen God the presence of the Father implies the presence of the Son. However by saying Jesus is the image of the unseen God, Paul effectively makes explicit Jesus is included within the "our" of our image.

By saying Jesus is the supreme over all creation, Paul alludes to our likeness which is to have dominion over some of creation. With respect to Adam, Jesus is supreme, and Paul states the authority given to Adam came from Jesus.

Conclusion
Paul's choice of image of the unseen God, firstborn over all creation parallels Genesis 1:26, man made in our image and our likeness. The parallel with our image is linguistic and done such to include the Son. The parallel with our likeness is conceptual in that both speak of authority over creation; man's being limited and coming from the Son (Colossians 1:16-17).


1. Fredrick William Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Third Edition, The University Chicago Press, 2000, p. 894
2. The LXX interperts firstborn as πρωτότοκος, which is the word Paul used in Colossians (1:15, 18).
3. Since the two are independent, either could be placed first without altering the meaning: firstborn over all creation, image of the unseen God is synonymous to image of the unseen God, firstborn over all creation.

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The only verse that I’m aware of is Col 1:15

He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. (Col 1:15–18)

Explained: Firstborn does have multiple biblical understandings that are all connected one way or another. Firstborn is specifically about Passover. Jesus Christ was also the Firstborn of Mary and Joseph, which would make Him THE FIRSTBORN of all creation because He is literally a firstborn but Jesus isn’t just a firstborn He is The Firstborn/Messiah. Jesus Christ is also the Firstborn from the dead, the First fruit. ((Jesus Christ being the “Firstborn” is not implying God creating Jesus Christ but it maybe could be implying that when the invisible God spoke everything into existence Jesus Christ was there visible because He is the Image of the invisible God, He was not the first creation but THE FIRST of all things created and THE LAST because “all things were created through him and for him“. When God decided to make things visible so was the Image of God and all things created through Him. The Image of God would have been inevitable and literally the First thing that happened.))👈 If this part isn’t clicking just ignore it and focus on the Passover. Firstborn most likely means Jesus Christ is our Passover Savior from sin and death. Jesus Christ is also the rightful heir to the throne (firstborn) which He is on or will be on depending on your eschatology. For more context I would read about Passover in Exodus.

By faith he kept the Passover and sprinkled the blood, so that the Destroyer of the firstborn might not touch them. (Heb 11:28)

and from Jesus Christ the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood (Re 1:5)

NT verses mentioning firstborn (Luke 2:7, Romans 8:29, Col 1:15, Col 1:18, Heb 1:6, Heb 11:28, Heb 12:23, Rev 1:5)

I hope what I have written makes sense and I’m blessed for being able to share what the Lord put on my heart.

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  • The OP was asking if Jesus was created, to which I believe that the Scripture tells us that He was. Consider Prov. 8:22, Rev. 3:14, John 8:12 and Gen. 1:3.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 0:40
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    I said Jesus Christ wasn’t created and the only verse that says Jesus Christ is the firstborn of all creation is Col 1:5. That’s not vague I just said that was the was the only verse. You have a difference of opinion and that’s ok but you don’t have to say I’m vague when I’m not. That was a vague reply about me being vague but it’s ok. I think you are wrong about Jesus being created based on the verses given because of Genesis 1:1. God created the Heaven and the Earth All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. (Jn 1:3)
    – Josh
    Commented Aug 15 at 1:10
  • Josh - Colossians 1:15 is not the only verse! Revelation 3:14 and Proverbs 8:22 confirm that Jesus is the firstborn of all creation, the first of God's works of creation.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 2:32
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    The question was 'Does the Old Testament contain verses . . . . . etc'.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Aug 15 at 4:22
  • Welcome to the Biblical Hermeneutics SE Josh. We are glad you are here. Please take a moment to take the site tour and check out what we are looking for in answers and the FAQs. We're passionate about high quality answers. Also consider going through the Help Center's sections on asking and answering questions.
    – Jason_
    Commented Aug 15 at 5:11
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Group, I've only skimmed a bit of this; hopefully I'll carefully get through all of it soon. I agree with the "firstborn" also having nuances in multiple definitions, such as ~"first in pre-eminence", etc, as described above by Jason. In which ways may you consider making a distinction between the "created" part, the body of Jesus Christ, in contrast to the "person" of Jesus Christ? We are hopeful in Christ Jesus for life after death. We keep people, loved ones, in remembrance after they are deceased; we know their body has expired, yet we still consider the person we knew in hope of seeing them again. Hopefully this sheds a bit of light on accepting the eternality of Jesus Christ while considering the "created" passages such as Hebrews 10:5, referencing Psalm 40:6. :) https://biblehub.com/hebrews/10-5.htm#crossref

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    Welcome to the site, jconantt3. A couple of points to help you get going on this site, which is unlike other ones (see Tour link below). This site is not for discussing or debating topics; it's for analyzing verses to see how they answer the question, not for giving personal interpretations. Comments are not for starting debates or arguing with others (sadly, this is often violated.) If you can add some points from your link into your answer, sticking to OT verses as proof, as the question asks for, that would be good.
    – Anne
    Commented Aug 20 at 14:32
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I think to appreciate this response we need first acknowledge that firstborn in the Bible always means either born first or first produced.

This is clearly true of individual humans outside of a messianic context.

Some people get confused because there are two very similar and closely related words associated with the concept of the firstborn that are nevertheless are consistently utilized with distinct meanings. Let's examine the following verse for example:
1 Chron 5:1-2

1 Now the sons of Reuben, the firstborn, בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr, of Israel (for he was the firstborn, בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr, but because he defiled his father’s bed, his birthright, בְּכוֹרָה ḇeḵôrâ, was given to the sons of Joseph, the son of Israel; so he is not enrolled in the genealogy according to the birthright, בְּכוֹרָה ḇeḵôrâ,.Though Judah prevailed over his brothers, and from him came the leader, yet the birthright, בְּכוֹרָה ḇeḵôrâ, belonged to Joseph),

Notice the two closely related and distinct words for firstborn and birthright.

  1. Firstborn or בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr in Hebrew and πρωτότοκος prōtotokos in Greek. Outside of language where God refers to his firstborn, firstborn always identifies a person who is born first or that which is produced first in chronology in the Bible. It is usually associated with preeminence and certain birthrights but it is not always as seen in 1 Chron 5:1 and thus is separable from the concept of preeminence and birthright, but is not separable from the concept of chronology. We see Reuban and even Esau are always referred to as the firstborn even though they both gave up/lost their birthright. Chronology is also associated with the concept of firstborn when God refers to his firstborn, but the applicability of chronology is often indirect and mysterious, but because the firstborn is everywhere else.

  2. Birthright or בְּכוֹרָה ḇeḵôrâ in Hebrew and πρωτοτόκια prōtotokia in Greek always refers to rights normally associated with being the firstborn in the Bible, but clearly can be separated from the concept of being chronologically first. Some individuals like the sons of Joseph and Jacob are never referred to as firstborn though they receive the birthrights associated with the firstborn. It's also interesting to note that here in this passage the concept of birthright isn't even necessarily inseparable from the concept of preeminence. Notice that Joseph's sons, the recipients of the birthright were not the most preeminent among the brothers but Judah is who neither born first nor possesses the birthright.

The Greek word that is used in Col 1:15 corresponds to Greek word πρωτότοκος prōtotokos and it's Hebrew analog בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr that always refers to one who is born or produced chronologically first at least outside of references to God's firstborn.

Now with respect to God's firstborn
Since the word firstborn is defined as firstborn or first produced and everywhere else maintains this meaning should we expect the term firstborn to continue to mean first born or first produced when referring to God's firstborn?

Well, yes, but how do we account for the fact that the term applies to those who are not obviously God's first born or those first produced by God?

Here are three examples.

Exodus 4:22

22 Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the LORD, Israel is my firstborn, בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr, son,

Jeremiah 31:9

9 With weeping they shall come, and with pleas for mercy I will lead them back, I will make them walk by brooks of water, in a straight path in which they shall not stumble, for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn, בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr,.

Psalms 89:20-27

20 I have found David, my servant; with my holy oil I have anointed him... 26 He shall cry to me, ‘You are my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation.’ 27 And I will make him the firstborn, בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr,, the highest of the kings of the earth.

So simply stated the reason that firstborn here refers to one who is literally born first or first produced is because Israel, Ephraim, and David are all considered one flesh, or one people, or otherwise all part of the household of God's literal firstborn, his anointed, Jesus, and are thus identified with him who is the firstborn.

Galatians 3:16-19

16 Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, “And to offsprings,” referring to many, but referring to one, “And to your offspring,” who is Christ.

Galatians 3:16 29 And if you are Christ’s, then you are Abraham’s offspring, heirs according to promise.

Since the anointed is declared to be God's firstborn we should expect that means he is chronologically first since that is what firstborn means. This implies his preexistence prior to his human birth.

Now God has many sons including those that preexisted the foundation of the Earth:

Job 38:4-7

4 “Where were you when I laid the foundation of the earth?
Tell me, if you have understanding.
5 Who determined its measurements—surely you know!
Or who stretched the line upon it?
6 On what were its bases sunk,
or who laid its cornerstone,
7 when the morning stars sang together
and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

So to be the firstborn son the preexistent Jesus would have to precede all of these.

Now I am not aware of any verse that directly says the sons of God that preexisted the founding of the Earth and the creation of man were themselves created. But we can imply that they were created as elsewhere it is taught that God fathers via creation:

Deuteronomy 32:6

6 Do you thus repay the LORD, you foolish and senseless people? Is not he your father, who created you, who made you and established you?

Malachi 2:10

10 Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us? Why then are we faithless to one another, profaning the covenant of our fathers? Malachi 2:10

So since the sons of God themselves were necessarily fathered/created prior to the founding of the Earth it is thus necessary that the preexistent Jesus himself, as the firstborn, must have been created even prior to these and anything else created in order to truly be the firstborn. He must be the firstborn of all creation.

So that's the Old Testament support of the Messiah being born first chronologically of all creation. It is rooted in understanding the literal and Biblically consistent meaning of firstborn, which the Son of God is clearly identified as, and it is rooted in the Biblical principle that God fathers his children via creation.

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  • The sons (angels) of God were created on Day 2, according to the clue from Psalm 104:4, the Little Genesis Psalm.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 18 at 10:49
  • 2
    -1 You say "I think to appreciate this response we need first acknowledge that firstborn in the Bible always means either born first or first produced." This is not true. For example Psalm 89:27 uses the term firstborn and it does not mean eitehr born first or first produced. Commented Aug 19 at 5:10
  • 2
    Yes. Psalm 89:27 has the Hebrew בְּכוֹר ḇeḵôr which you note. The LXX has πρωτότοκος, firstborn as in Colossians 1:15, 18. Neither of those agree with your claim the meaning is first born or first produced. Rather the meaning is one of preeminence. I think your analysis to turn preeminence into something different is contrary to the plain reading in both Psalm 89 and Colossians 1:15 and 1:18. Commented Aug 19 at 18:53
  • 1
    @RevelationLad, the problem isn't thinking that the firstborn is preeminent in the verses you cited. Clearly the firstborn is preeminent. The problem is thinking that because the preeminence of the firstborn is established that means that he cannot be also be born first. There is no solid reason for asserting that just because the firstborn is preeminent he cannot be born first especially since in every context outside of these verses that's exactly what firstborn means to be born or produced first. We have no example outside of speaking of the son of God where the firstborn is not born first.
    – Austin
    Commented Aug 19 at 23:33
  • 2
    You say, "There is no solid reason for asserting that just because the firstborn is preeminent he cannot be born first especially since in every context outside of these verses that's exactly what firstborn means to be born or produced first." In every context outside these verses...that is the point. These verses show the meaning is not always first created or first produced. David wasn't even the first king of Israel, that was Saul. The king is the preeminent king of kings. The word is אֶתְּנֵ֑הוּ, nathan to appoint, to set, not to make or to create. Commented Aug 20 at 7:24
-3

"If Jesus is included in Genesis 1 :26'

Jesus is not included in Genesis 1:26. The next verse, Genesis 1:27 shows that it was God who created using the pronoun his and he. In Matthew 19 :4", Jesus did not ascribe creation to himself. He attributed it to this same Creator/God in Genesis 1:27 which is translated in English using the pronoun he. The Creator/God is never referred to as "us or our" in the bible.

Genesis 1:27 Aramaic Bible in Plain English

And God created Adam in his image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.

Matthew 19:4 Aramaic Bible in Plain English

But he answered and said to them, “Have you not read that he who made from the beginning, made them male and female?”

Assuming that Jesus is included in Genesis 1:26 is reading the New Testament back into the Old Testament. Jesus was never present in the Old Testament. Jesus was never involved with mankind during the Old Testament. The verses used to place Jesus in the Old Testament are all based on assumptions and need to be examined to reveal whether these are exegeted or eisegeted.

Jesus "the first-born of all creation 460 years later in the New Testament"

Examining Colossians 1:15-16

In the New Testament, Paul did not teach that Jesus was the creator as Acts 17:24-25, 30-31 clearly show.

Acts 17:25-25, 30-31 ASV

24 The God that made the world and all things therein, he, being Lord of heaven and earth, dwelleth not in temples made with hands; 25 neither is he served by men's hands, as though he needed anything, seeing he himself giveth to all life, and breath, and all things; 30 The times of ignorance therefore God overlooked; but now he commandeth men that they should all everywhere repent: 31 inasmuch as he hath appointed a day in which he will judge the world in righteousness by the man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.

Notice that Paul used the pronoun "He" for the God who made the world who made all things in it. Paul did not use "us or "our" to refer the God that made the world.

Paul does not describe Jesus as the Creator in Colossians 1:15-19, these verse show Jesus as the firstborn from among the dead of the new creation, Colossians 1:18, 1 Corinthians 15:20. Colossians 1:1-3 show God as our Father and the Father of our lord Jesus Christ. The God of the bible has no Father. He is the Father. Colossians 1:16 is not about the Genesis creation because Adam was the firstborn in the Genesis creation, not Jesus.

All authorities were created in, through and for Jesus, Jesus, not by Jesus. The Greek preposition (ἐν) is “in”, not “by”. examples are "in him" and "in heaven" (Colossians 1:16)

Colossians 1:16 YLT

because in him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through him, and for him, have been created.

Colossians 1:16 NLT

for through him God created everything in the heavenly realms and on earth. He made the things we can see and the things we can’t see— such as thrones, kingdoms, rulers, and authorities in the unseen world. Everything was created through him and for him.

Colossians 1:16 NASB

For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities— all things have been created through Him and for Him.

The image of the invisible God means the image is not God. Jesus was not invisible. Jesus represented God, he is not the God that he represented. Jesus was begotten, died and was raised to life by his God. John 3:16 Acts 3:13,15

Acts 3:13,15 YLT

13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, did glorify His child Jesus, whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, he having given judgment to release him,15 and the Prince of the life ye did kill, whom God did raise out of the dead, of which we are witnesses.

Because of Jesus death and resurrection, God made him preeminent in the coming kingdom.

7
  • 3
    Your missing the whole point of this thread. Colossians 1:15 explains that Jesus Christ is the "first-born of all creation in the sense of being actually created by God the Father. Since you deny Jesus' deity, where in the OT does it say Jesus is the "first-born of all creation? Why is this only mentioned by Paul in Colossians and not anywhere else? Why does Genesis 1:26-27 state that Adam is the first man created by God Himself? And btw, you forgot about John 1:3, "apart from Him/Jesus nothing came into being that has come into being." Reconcile this with Isaiah 44:24?
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 15 at 19:47
  • 3
    The firstborn of all creation and missing when God said "Let us make man in our likeness and after our likeness..." All things were made through Him, but missing when God said "Let us make..." In your snowstorm of verses maybe you can locate where the firstborn of creation was on the sixth day. Commented Aug 16 at 0:08
  • 3
    Alex wrote: "The Creator/God is never referred to as "us or our" in the bible." However, Genesis 1:26a (ESV) reads like this: 26 God said, “Let US make man in OUR image, according to OUR likeness . . ." It's important when making any assertion to provide an explanation for passages that seem to refute your assertion. In this case, "us" and "our" are indeed found in that passage--in Hebrew, the words used are described as "first person common plural." Also note that the passage doesn't read "God said, “Let ME make man in MY image, according to MY likeness . . ."
    – Dieter
    Commented Aug 16 at 0:45
  • Alex and Dieter, "...come let Us make..." is God the Father speaking to Jesus the Son, who is God's agent for creating His creation. God the Father is the Creator, and Jesus the Son is the master workman for God the Creator.
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 16 at 20:45
  • 1
    @JoshuaB. Jesus ascribed creation to God /Creator, Matthew 19:4, which was translated using "He". Jesus statement affirms Genesis 1:27.In Isaiah 45:18 we find the Creator identified as YHWH/Jehovah using the pronouns"He"and "I". Even if we assume that Jesus is the master workman, the master workman himself attributed creation not to himself but to his God. Commented Aug 16 at 21:35
-3

Yes, Genesis 1:3, Psalms 2:7, and Proverbs 8:22 are Old Testament passages which reveal that Jesus the Son was begotten from the Father God on Day 1 of Creation as the Light of the world:


In Colossians 1:15, "firstborn of all creation" means that Jesus was the first being to be created by God in the Genesis creation week, begotten on the 1st Day as the Light of the world as the first of God's works before anything else was created (Gen. 1:3, Prov. 8:22, Rev. 3:14, Ps. 2:7). Through him and for him was all else created (1 Cor. 8:6, Col 1:15, Prov. 8:30), including the man Adam and his wife on the 6th Day as the last of God's works (Gen. 1:26).

"Firstborn from among the dead" means that Jesus was the first being to be resurrected from the dead into immortality (Col. 1:18). As He was the Chief Angel of God before His mortal human incarnation (and returned to being such after His resurrection), He became the first mortal man to be resurrected into an immortal spirit body and is therefore called the Last Adam. All other humans that have been resurrected still died, but Jesus Christ is alive now and forevermore at God's right hand.

Jesus is the firstborn of those alive, and the firstborn of those dead, so that He is "first in everything" (Col. 1:18).

Jesus is the first being to be created by God, and the first mortal being to be resurrected into immortality by God.

Colossians 1:15-18 is about both the Genesis begetting of Christ (to make him firstborn over all physical creation), and also the resurrection of Christ as the first man to gain immortality after death (to make him firstborn over all the dead). Colossians 1:15-18 is about Christ being preeminent over both the old creation and the new creation.

I hope this cleared things up for you. There is no need for anyone to overcomplicate this.

15
  • You said, "Jesus is the first being to be created by God," Where is your proof that this is true? At Genesis 1:26 it says, "Let Us make man in Our image." The Bible is clear that Adam was the first man created by God, where do you get the idea it was Jesus? Remember, I am asking specifically to give me scriptures from the Old Testament that Jesus Christ is the "first-born" of all creation. Proverbs 8:22 does not identify Jesus as the first created person. Your "assuming" that position. Why were we told about Jesus being the first-born of creation 460 years later in the New Testament?
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 15 at 1:26
  • @Mr.Bond - Genesis 1:3. The Light of Day 1 is a title for Jesus Christ, the Son of God. The begetting of the Light is God's first work, and in Proverbs 8:22 the Son says that He was the "first of His works of old". God is Light, and His Son is Light, as are all His other sons. Anything begotten of Light is light. Jesus said, "I am the Light of the world".
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 2:28
  • 1
    I cannot see that this answers the question. I was expecting verses from the Hebrew scripture, myself.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Aug 15 at 4:20
  • @NigelJ - was I not quoting Hebrew scriptures?
    – Joshua B
    Commented Aug 15 at 13:17
  • 1
    @JoshuaB Nige J is referring to Old Testament scriptures. I specifically ask for verses from the OT that prove Jesus Christ is God's first and greatest creation. You provided only Proverbs 8:22 which is not about Jesus. The whole book of Proverbs is about "Wisdom." Just read Proverbs 1:1. All your doing Joshua B is "parroting" what you were taught by Jehovah's Witnesses literature. Why don't you be honest and tell us that Jesus Christ is really Michael the arch angel ( a created being) in addition to Jesus Christ, (another created being)? I'm not interested in any NT verses, only OT verses.
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 15 at 13:21

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