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I was reading Num 19:10 and it says that the law would be a permanent "statute" (KJV).

The man who gathers up the ashes of the heifer must also wash his clothes, and he too will be unclean till evening. This will be a lasting ordinance both for the Israelites and for the foreigners residing among them.

What exactly does this mean in light of the new covenant? Is it still permanent? Does it still apply? If it was permanent how does the new covenant make it not permanent?

There are many examples as well such as Lev 3:17, 6:22, Num 16:31, 34, 29, 17:7, 19:21, 10:8, 18:23, 23:31, 15:15, Ex 28:43, 29:9, etc.

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  • The word is 'statute', meaning a boundary or a limit. for a statute for ever. Numbers 19:10, KJV. – Nigel J Mar 21 at 15:12
  • @Bobguest Check hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/55393/… – Tony Chan Mar 21 at 15:57
  • This is really a systematic theology question, and there are lots of different answers out there. Some Christians say such laws do still apply. Others say they apply but only to Jews. Others say they've been transformed. Others say they've been fulfilled. Others say they've been abolished. I think questions about these positions would be better asked at Christianity. – curiousdannii Mar 21 at 23:31
  • The new covenant is not about the Law (ie 10 commandments) It is specifically about an agreement between God and his people. If they follow his statutes, then he will bless them. If not...well, he would punish them. The Israelites fell flat on their faces trying to keep to the covenant, so Jesus gave them a new one! As in the case of the law of Medes and the Persians...once a decree is made, it cannot be changed. God is unchanging in the same way. What he does is extend grace to us, however, that does not mean the rules or expectations change! – Adam Mar 22 at 6:32