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Can someone explain how there came to be different chapter/verse numberings in Chapter 40 of the book of Job? MT 40:25 becomes 41:1 in many other Bibles.

Thanks!

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  • Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange, thanks for contributing! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites.
    – Steve Taylor
    May 3 '16 at 7:26
  • This is often the case - English Bibles have slightly different verse and chapter divisions in many places.
    – user25930
    Oct 27 '18 at 1:35

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