Philippians 2:6-8 (ESV)

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:6-81881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

6 ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω

7 αλλα εαυτον εκενωσεν μορφην δουλου λαβων εν ομοιωματι ανθρωπων γενομενος και σχηματι ευρεθεις ως ανθρωπος

8 εταπεινωσεν εαυτον γενομενος υπηκοος μεχρι θανατου θανατου δε σταυρου

I interpret Philippians 2:6 as Christ already existing in the form of God and Philippians 2:7 as Christ taking the form of a slave which means that he was in God's form prior to taking a slave's form. As one who accepts the Chalcedon Creed, I interpret Philippians 2:7-8 to mean that Christ merely added the form of a slave to his preexisting divine form. In other words, Jesus Christ has dual form - God and slave - when he was on earth. Does the text support this understanding?

Is Christ seen as still having the form of God in Philippians 2:7-8?

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    Since God is eternal, then one who is God can never stop being God. It's simple logic. In other words, yes, he remained God while simultaneously taking the form of a servant (i.e., man). – user862 Jan 10 '16 at 19:34
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    Your question is "presupposing" what the word "Form" actually means. When, it is probably more valid to understand "Form" in the "Philosophical" sense, rather than the modern theological notion of "same entity" - which I think has no merit at all. Original Word: μορφή, ῆς, ἡ - Definition: form, shape, outward appearance.. This is important in context of "Form" in Greek Philosophy. Regardless, it is never "the same entity". This question assumes Paul is talking about Oneness/Trinitarian doctrine, but Paul might be tackling something entirely different. – elika kohen Aug 17 '17 at 19:16
  • This question is akin to "Have you stopped beating your wife?" – Ruminator Sep 16 '17 at 22:09
  • God is GOD, and he can take whatever form he desires, including making for himself a body from the genetic attributes of Mary and Joseph so he could sojourn amongst his people in a way that was sensible to them, and fulfill the promises concerning the kingdom and the king. – enegue Sep 16 '17 at 23:12

"Is Christ seen as still having . . . ?"

The form, morphe, or nature, of Deity is everlasting. Thus it is never changed or disposed of.

If another form be taken, then that other form must be in addition to the form Deity.

My understanding of the term "Union of two natures" which is spoken of by many is that the two natures : Divine and human : do not merge or coalesce, for they cannot.

But I understand - and believe - that they are united. But only united in the Person of Jesus Christ. Where - only - they meet together in such a way.

In the one Mediator between God and humanity.



Is Christ still in the form of God in Philippians 2:7-8 ?

Given His Transfiguration, celebrated only ten days ago, and described in Matthew 17:1-2 and Mark 9:2-3, it would seem that Christ merely veiled His true nature during His kenosis, rather than outright abandoning it. Though not personally present at the event, Paul, the author of Philippians, had quite a similar experience on his famous road to Damascus (Acts 9:3, 22:6). It is not unlikely that the two Apostles may have shared their common experience of the glorified Christ during their sojourning together for two weeks, as mentioned in Galatians 1:18. So, all in all, I personally would ultimately answer your question as to whether the text supports this understanding in the affirmative.


This passage of Philippians is completely incompatible with the "Chalcedonion Creed," the "Creed of Athanasius" and the dogma of the Trinity altogether and the question raised is inappropriate for a site purporting to be exegetical and inductive. I move to move it to "Christianity.SE", or better yet, consign it to the bit-bucket.


Is Christ seen as still having the form of God in Philippians 2:7-8?


1) Christ have a previous existence to other men.

John testified about him and shouted out, “This one was the one about whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is greater than I am, because he existed before me.’” (Jo 1:15 [NET])

2) Christ was God in God.

Jesus replied, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I have come from (within of) God and am now here. I have not come on my own initiative, but he sent me. (Jo 8:42 [NET])

3) Christ is the unique that coming out of God.

For the one who said sometime in the angels? Son of me are you being. Today I have begotten you and again I will be to him inside by Father and he will be to me, inside by Son? Hebrews 1: 5

The use of the adjective word declension, plural and gender-neutral in Philippians Charter, precisely at 2:15 and 4:8 for the understanding of "Isa" (neuter plural of "Isos") in Philippians 2: 6:

To this, you are thinking, which was also in Christ Jesus: That in the form (image) of existing God, did not consider the involvement being the God, without differences. Philippians 2: 5-6.

without differences = equals = "isa" in Greek

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