Questions tagged [philippians]

Questions about Paul's letter to the Philippians.

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Our "tent" - Discarded or resurrected?

In 2 Corinthians 5:1, Paul writes the following (NKJV): For we know that if our earthly house, this tent, is destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal in the ...
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Is Philippians 3:3 evidence for the worship of the Holy Spirit?

In the ESV, Philippians 3:3 reads: For we are the circumcision, who worship by the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh. According to this paper by Christiaan ...
Daniel Waters's user avatar
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5 answers
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What mind was in Jesus that the Philippians were advised to also have? [closed]

Philippians 2:5 ASV Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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Should Philippians 2:6 say "in the form of God" or "in the form of a god"?

I have come across a theological assertion that Philippians 2:6 should be understood thus: Who, being in the form of a god, thought it not robbery to be equal with a god ... What is the ...
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What is the power Jesus has to subject everything to Himself?

Philippians 3:21 NASB “…who will transform the body of our humble state into conformity with the body of His glory, by the exertion of the power that He has even to subject all things to Himself.” ‭‭ ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
73 views

Why does Paul have a category of people being “perfect” in Philippians 3:15?

Philippians 3:15 NASB Let us therefore, as many as are perfect, have this attitude; and if in anything you have a different attitude, God will reveal that also to you… What does Paul mean here when ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
1 vote
4 answers
146 views

What does "agree in the Lord" mean in Philippians 4:2?

Philippians 4:2 "I entreat Euodia and I entreat Syntyche to agree in the Lord". ESV In the next verse we are told Euodia and Syntyche "laboured side by side with me in the gospel"...
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What is Paul trying to lay hold of in Philippians 3:12?

Philippians 3:12 NASB “Not that I have already obtained it or have already become perfect, but I press on so that I may lay hold of that for which also I was laid hold of by Christ Jesus.” ‭‭ What ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
83 views

What is the resurrection of the dead that Paul wants to attain?

Philippians 3:11 …in order that I may attain to the ressurection of the dead. What is the resurrection of the dead that Paul is hoping to attain through fellowship of Christ’s sufferings and ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
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What is the meaning of "achri/at/until" in Philippians 1:6?

Philippians 1:6 "being confident of this very thing, that He who has begun a good work in you will complete it until the day of Jesus Christ". NKJV My emphasis. Philippians 1:6 "And ...
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Examining the Greek negative particle "ouk" in Philippians 2:6

If the negative particle ouk in Philippians 2:6 is tied to harpagmon instead of hegesato, does it mean then that Jesus deemed equality with God as something not attainable? Does the actual Greek text ...
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Is Phillippians a compilation of letters?

While reading the Epistle to the Philipians in Wikipedia found the following remark Starting in the 1960s, a general consensus has emerged among biblical scholars that Philippians was not written as ...
Tiago Martins Peres's user avatar
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2 answers
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Where was Paul when he wrote to the Philippians?

Different sources point to different locations, namely Caesarea Ephesus Rome Where was Paul when he wrote to the Philippians? If we cannot say where he was, what can we say about the location?
Tiago Martins Peres's user avatar
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Examining the New International Version's translation of (phusis) nature in Galatians 4:8 and (morphe) form/nature in Philippians 2:6-7

Galatians 4:8 NIV Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. by nature φύσει (physei) Noun - Dative Feminine Singular Strong's 5449: From phuo; growth, ...
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What does "very nature" of a servant mean in Philippians 2:7?

Philippians 2:7 NIV rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. Did Jesus become a servant because he possessed a nature that classified him ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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What does the greek word ὑπάρχων (hyparchōn) tell us about Jesus' existence in Philippians 2:6?

Philippians 2:6 YLT who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal to God, ὑπάρχων (hyparchōn) Strong's 5225: To begin, am, exist, be in possession. From hupo and archomai; to begin ...
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Is Paul speaking of the same group in Philippians 1 and 3?

Yesterday I've asked a question in regards to the identity of "the dogs" in Philippians 3 - Who are "those dogs"? This current question now aims to understand the relationship ...
Tiago Martins Peres's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
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Who are "those dogs"?

I was going through some interesting questions in the community regarding Philippians 3, namely Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? What is the meaning of "katatomē" in ...
Tiago Martins Peres's user avatar
5 votes
2 answers
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Is Paul considering suicide? [closed]

In Philippians 1:19‭-‬26 NLT, we read For I know that as you pray for me and the Spirit of Jesus Christ helps me, this will lead to my deliverance. For I fully expect and hope that I will never be ...
Tiago Martins Peres's user avatar
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Why is σεμνός (semnos) translated as "honest" or "honorable" in Philippians 4:8?

Why is σεμνός (semnos, Strong's number G4586) translated as "honest" (KJV) or "honorable" (WEB) in Philippians 4:8? In the three other verses where σεμνός is used (1 Timothy 3:8, ...
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Greek question Philippians 3:9 is it "faith in Christ" or "faith of Christ"

I'm looking at Philippians 3:9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; (...
Todd's user avatar
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Why is "to do" (ἐνεργεῖν) rendered as "power" in the NLT?

For God is working in you, giving you the desire and the power to do what pleases him. - Phil. 2:13 (NLT) As per the title, why is ἐνεργεῖν rendered as "power" in the NLT when it is ...
Tom's user avatar
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1 answer
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Does numbers 16 showcase the reality of Hell/Sheol?

We read: “And Yahweh spoke to Moses and Aaron, saying, “Separate yourselves from the midst of this community, that I can destroy them in a moment.” And they fell on their faces, and they said, “God, ...
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Is to die gain or not? Paul (Philippians 1:21-24, 2 Corinthians 5:8) vs. David (Psalm 6:4-5, 30:9)

According to Paul, it is: 21 For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. 22 If I am to live in the flesh, that means fruitful labor for me. Yet which I shall choose I cannot tell. 23 I am hard ...
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3 votes
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471 views

Was Jesus obedient unto death, Phil 2:8; or He became obedient because He suffered, Heb 5:8?

Philippians 2:8; KJV; 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Hebrews 5:8,9; KJV; 8 Though he were a Son, yet learned ...
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When Paul said that he would like to be "at home with the Lord" (2 Corinthians 5:8), was he referring to Abraham's bosom?

Paul believed that after leaving his body he would be at home/present with the Lord: Yes, we are of good courage, and we would rather be away from the body and at home with the Lord. [2 Corinthians 5:...
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2 votes
2 answers
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What does μορφῇ mean in Phil. 2:6&7?

Many questions have been asked about Phil. 2:6-11. The following question asking about ἴσα is the closest to this one, but another question is the meaning of μορφῇ What is the significance of ἴσα in ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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How might "one mind" in Philippians 2:2 compare with "your mind" in Mark 12:30?

"complete my joy by being of the same mind, having the same love, being in full accord and of one mind." Philippians 2:2 ESV -One mind. mind/phroneo. "And you shall love the Lord your ...
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What does "understanding" mean in "the peace of God which surpasses all understanding" Philippians 4:7?

"And the peace of God which surpasses all understanding, will guard your hearts and minds in Christ Jesus". Philippians 4:7 ESV. [understanding-Strong's 3563]. e.g. How can Christians have ...
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6 votes
4 answers
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What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?

Philippians 2:6 NIV Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage Philippians 2:6 NLT Though he was God, he did not think of equality with ...
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What did Jesus empty himself of in Philippians 2:7 [duplicate]

Philippians 2:7 ASV but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men; What is Paul telling us in this verse?
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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3 votes
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Can Philippians 1:6 be connected to 1 Corinthians 1:4-9?

Knowing that Paul mentions the guarantee of the Spirit multiple times in different letters, could it be possible that Paul is referring to the same concept of final perseverance in both Philippians 1:...
Cork88's user avatar
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5 votes
6 answers
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Does Philippians 2:5-8 indicate chronological progression?

Based upon comments to this question on Christianity SE and, looking at the text of Philippians 2:5-8: Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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Can the participle ὑπάρχων in Phil. 2:6 mean "because he was?"

A Greek scholar at Dallas Seminary says this participle can be understood as "because" which gives a whole deeper level of understanding of humility, beginning with God.
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653 views

What was a "drink offering" in the O/T?

The term "drink offering" seems to have first appeared in Numbers 28: Numbers 28:8: "The other lamb you shall offer at twilight; as the grain offering of the morning and as its drink ...
Xeno's user avatar
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6 votes
6 answers
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Does our righteousness that comes from God is equal to His righteousness?

In Phil. 3:9 we read: "and be found in Him, not having mine own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith;&...
Giselle's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
113 views

How might we reconcile Titus 3:3 with Philippians 3:4b-6?

In his Letter to Titus, the apostle Paul seems to include himself in his description of those who earlier practiced sinful behavior: Titus 3:3: "For we also once were foolish ourselves, ...
Xeno's user avatar
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Did Pharisees have to be married (Phil. 3:4b-6)? [closed]

We know that Paul, a Pharisee, is single as he writes his First Letter to the Corinthians: 1 Corinthians 7:8: "But I say to the unmarried and to widows that it is good for them if they remain ...
Xeno's user avatar
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How exactly was Paul able to "do all things through Christ who strengthened him"? Philippians 4:12-13

Philippians 4:12-13: 12 I know both how to be abased, and I know how to abound: every where and in all things I am instructed both to be full and to be hungry, both to abound and to suffer need. 13 I ...
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1 vote
2 answers
290 views

Who emptied himself in Philippians 2 :6-7? What does empty mean? [duplicate]

Philippians 2:6-7 KJV says 6 who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in ...
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2 votes
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What do the words kenoo (empty) and harpagmos (seize) mean Philippians 2:5-7? [duplicate]

American Standard Version of Philippians 2:5-7, Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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How to reconcile Philippians 2:5-8 with Numbers 23:19 and Hosea 11:9?

Philippians 2:5-8 is commonly interpreted by many as a description of the incarnation of Jesus: 5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of ...
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7 votes
8 answers
599 views

Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event?

John 1:14 (YLT): 14 And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth. Philippians 2:5-8 (YLT): 5 ...
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6 votes
5 answers
383 views

At what exact moments did Jesus start and finish emptying himself in Philippians 2:5-8?

Philippians 2:5-8 (YLT): 5 For, let this mind be in you that [is] also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, thought [it] not robbery to be equal to God, 7 but did empty himself, the form ...
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3 votes
3 answers
261 views

Did Paul believe that he would immediately be with Jesus as soon as he died?

21 For to me, to live is Christ, and to die is gain. 22 But if I am to live on in the flesh, this will mean fruitful labor for me; and I do not know which to choose. 23 But I am hard-pressed from both ...
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3 votes
2 answers
4k views

In Philippians 4:5, what does Paul mean when he states, “Let your moderation be known unto all men”?

While analyzing this particular verse, the word used for moderation in the Koine Greek is "epieikies" meaning equitable, fair, and/or fitting. How does that translate to moderation or in ...
יהודה's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
136 views

In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?

[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now, [Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now, [Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
Ruminator's user avatar
4 votes
7 answers
2k views

What does "equality with God" mean, and how can it be "exploited"? Philippians 2:6

Philippians 2:5-8 (NRSV): 5 Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, 7 but emptied ...
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0 votes
2 answers
163 views

Whom is Paul talking to in Philippians 2:14?

Philippians 2:14 Do everything without grumbling or arguing, Was Pauling addressing only the Philippians? To all the churches then? And now?
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5 votes
2 answers
377 views

(Philippians 3:9) GREEK - Repeated Accusative Article

I'm trying to understand the greek of Philippians 3:9 and here Paul uses this lone accusative article over and over. Can you help me understand what this means? καὶ εὑρεθῶ ἐν αὐτῷ μὴ ἔχων ἐμὴν ...
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