I was teaching from Mark 3 using the NRSV and asked for someone to read starting in v19b (after the section break).
19 and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.
Jesus and Beelzebul
Then he went home; 20 and the crowd came together again, so that they could not even eat.
No one spoke up and I found they were all using the NIV (or similar) which has "then he went home" with verse 20 (so with no section break mid-verse) and were confused what 19b meant.
19 and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.
Jesus Accused by His Family and by Teachers of the Law
20 Then Jesus entered a house, and again a crowd gathered, so that he and his disciples were not even able to eat.
The UBS GNT (4th) has the versification as the NIV, NET, ESV, etc have it. Is there something in the textual apparatus (either NA or UBS) that would indicate why the RSV/NRSV break this differently? The USB footnote indicates a paragraph break for the RSV/NRSV after verse 19 ὃς καὶ παρέδωκεν αὐτόν) which is accurate, but in those translations the verse also includes Καὶ ἔρχεται εἰς οἶκον. Or is this just an oversight? The NRSVue aligns with the Greek versification.
This is obviously not an important issue, but a matter of curiosity nonetheless.