I'm not sure if this is the right place to ask this, but Matthew 19:9 in the KJV reads:
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Other translations, such as the ESV, simply read:
And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.
Which translation is more accurate? Because the differences make a huge difference in how we should view any exceptions Jesus might have given on this subject.
The KJV would seem to make it to where, even in cases of unrepentant adultery, the innocent victim of an adulterous divorce is bound for life to singleness. But the ESV and other translations seem to allow for freedom for the victim.