Did Jesus claim in Mark 2:23-26 that telling lies to get food is justified when 'hungry' (πεινάω)?
He [Jesus] said to them, “Have you never read what David [Δαβίδ] did when he was in need and hungry, he and those with him (καὶ αὐτὸς ἔλεγεν αὐτοῖς Οὐδέποτε ἀνέγνωτε τί ἐποίησεν Δαβίδ, ὅτε χρείαν ἔσχεν καὶ ἐπείνασεν αὐτός καὶ οἱ μετ᾽ αὐτοῦ)
- Jesus (like David in 1 Samuel 21) needs to find food to feed those with him. Jesus decides to validate breaking sabbath law for feeding his men, by referencing the overlooked sins (telling lies about King Shaul) which David commited to find food for those with him:
how he [David] went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar [error: "Achimelek", 1 Samuel 21:2-4] the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not lawful to eat except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were with him?
In order to feed those with him, David violates God's prohibition against telling lies (Exodus 20:13) to attain showbread from אֲחִימֶלֶךְ "Achimelek" (1 Samuel 21:2-4) by stating false reports about King שָׁאוּל Shaul.
- Please note : This question is Not asking if Jesus claimed David spoke directly with אֲחִימֶלֶךְ "Achimelek" [1 Samuel 21] or Ἀβιάθαρ "Abiathar" [Mark 2:26].
Jesus references David's use of lies to gain prohibited food to validate his own disciples' violation of Sabbath labor laws to gain food.
[QUESTION] : Based on Jesus' Grainfield Logic in [Mark 2:23-26], What level of hunger is accepted by Jesus for people (like David/Disciples) to break God's commandments for food?