In Paul's accounting of the ordering of the resurrection he mentions a few things that seem to be an allusion to Psalm 47:5:
[1Th 4:14-18 KJV] 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him. 15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent [IE: "precede"] them which are asleep. 16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: 17 Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. 18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.
Are the mention of "the KURIOS himself", "gone up", "with a shout" and "sound of a trumpet" from Psalm 47 the background of his teaching in Thessalonians?:
[Psa 47:5 KJV] 5 God is gone up with a shout, the LORD with the sound of a trumpet.
Also note the theme of "subdued peoples" and "nations under our feet":
4 *He subdued peoples for us and nations under our feet.
Brannan, R., Penner, K. M., Loken, I., Aubrey, M., & Hoogendyk, I. (Eds.). (2012). The Lexham English Septuagint (Ps 46:4). Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press.
Paul seems to make use of that here:
[1Co 15:23-28 ESV] 23 But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ. 24 Then comes the end, when he delivers the kingdom to God the Father after destroying every rule and every authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For "God has put all things in subjection under his feet." But when it says, "all things are put in subjection," it is plain that he is excepted who put all things in subjection under him. 28 When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all.
He even speaks of "our gathering together with him"!:
10 *The rulers of the people are gathered with the God of Abraham, for God’s mighty ones of the earth are magnified exceedingly.
Brannan, R., Penner, K. M., Loken, I., Aubrey, M., & Hoogendyk, I. (Eds.). (2012). The Lexham English Septuagint (Ps 46:10). Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press.
In fact, the Psalm begins "For the end"!:
For the end, a psalm in the name of the sons of Korah.
Brannan, R., Penner, K. M., Loken, I., Aubrey, M., & Hoogendyk, I. (Eds.). (2012). The Lexham English Septuagint (Ps 46:1). Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press.
If so, then how might that change our understanding of the 1 Thessalonians passage?
Also, is this relevant?:
[Zec 9:14 KJV] 14 And the LORD shall be seen over them, and his arrow shall go forth as the lightning: and the Lord GOD shall blow the trumpet, and shall go with whirlwinds of the south.
It may or may not be the same occasion but it does mention YHVH blowing a trumpet and possibly being transported up to his home in the sky via a cyclone:
[Job 38:1 KJV] 1 Then the LORD answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
[Job 40:6 KJV] 6 Then answered the LORD unto Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
When Paul says that "the Lord himself shall descend" should we understand him to be saying that it is "God (IE: the LORD/YHVH, the Father) himself" that shall descend or "the Lord Jesus himself"?
I always pictured "the Lord himself" as referring to Jesus, perhaps alluding to:
[Act 1:11 KJV] 11 Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.
However, in verse 14 it is God that brings the rest of the dead along with Jesus, (because it is God that raised Christ from the dead):
[1Th 4:14 KJV] 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
IE: God will bring all the rest of them that sleep up with Christ.
So does any of this change how we should view this passage?
Also, would the allusion(s) give meaning to Paul's mention of "by the word of the Lord"?
[1Th 4:15 KJV] 15 For this we say unto you by the word [λόγος, "utterance"] of the Lord [YHVH?], that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent [IE: "shall not precede"] them which are asleep.