It is well known that in many cases in the Old Testament that whenever Satan is described, it is accompanied by a definite article rendering it as ‘Ha-Satan’ (The Satan).

(This question will not go into the connotations of what this means about the view of Satan in the OT as there are many questions on this already).

However, watching the bible project podcast (see 20:00-22:40) OT scholar Tim Mackie asserts that the actual Greek of the New Testament follows this same tradition of rendering Satan with a definite article, making it The Satan.

Yet in our translations, we only ever see ‘Satan’ as a Proper Name and never a title. I tried to research if this did happen in translation, but information is very scarce.

So, does the original Greek of the NT render Satan as “The Satan”?

Or did it originally render it this way and do our translations of the Greek text word Satan differently?