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I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a non-literal translation such as "baffles the world". This translation is supported by The Living Bible:

But the spiritual man has insight into everything, and that bothers and baffles the man of the world, who can’t understand him at all.

And Phillip's translation:

The spiritual man, on the other hand, has an insight into the meaning of everything, though his insight may baffle the man of the world.

Jon's answer to this previous questionthis previous question does an excellent joy of explaining the superiority of the NET's "yet he himself is understood by no one" over the traditional "yet he himself is judged by no man" and I debated whether it is really worth another question. I agree this translation makes more sense contextually and theologically, and eliminates the confusing nature of Paul's quote.

Still, I wonder if the "baffles" translation is better still given a functional equivalence translation philosophy. What evidence is there that Paul meant this passage to carry a "surprise" connotation?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a non-literal translation such as "baffles the world". This translation is supported by The Living Bible:

But the spiritual man has insight into everything, and that bothers and baffles the man of the world, who can’t understand him at all.

And Phillip's translation:

The spiritual man, on the other hand, has an insight into the meaning of everything, though his insight may baffle the man of the world.

Jon's answer to this previous question does an excellent joy of explaining the superiority of the NET's "yet he himself is understood by no one" over the traditional "yet he himself is judged by no man" and I debated whether it is really worth another question. I agree this translation makes more sense contextually and theologically, and eliminates the confusing nature of Paul's quote.

Still, I wonder if the "baffles" translation is better still given a functional equivalence translation philosophy. What evidence is there that Paul meant this passage to carry a "surprise" connotation?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a non-literal translation such as "baffles the world". This translation is supported by The Living Bible:

But the spiritual man has insight into everything, and that bothers and baffles the man of the world, who can’t understand him at all.

And Phillip's translation:

The spiritual man, on the other hand, has an insight into the meaning of everything, though his insight may baffle the man of the world.

Jon's answer to this previous question does an excellent joy of explaining the superiority of the NET's "yet he himself is understood by no one" over the traditional "yet he himself is judged by no man" and I debated whether it is really worth another question. I agree this translation makes more sense contextually and theologically, and eliminates the confusing nature of Paul's quote.

Still, I wonder if the "baffles" translation is better still given a functional equivalence translation philosophy. What evidence is there that Paul meant this passage to carry a "surprise" connotation?

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Could I Corinthians 2:15 carry a sense of "surprise"?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a non-literal translation such as "baffles the world". This translation is supported by The Living Bible:

But the spiritual man has insight into everything, and that bothers and baffles the man of the world, who can’t understand him at all.

And Phillip's translation:

The spiritual man, on the other hand, has an insight into the meaning of everything, though his insight may baffle the man of the world.

Jon's answer to this previous question does an excellent joy of explaining the superiority of the NET's "yet he himself is understood by no one" over the traditional "yet he himself is judged by no man" and I debated whether it is really worth another question. I agree this translation makes more sense contextually and theologically, and eliminates the confusing nature of Paul's quote.

Still, I wonder if the "baffles" translation is better still given a functional equivalence translation philosophy. What evidence is there that Paul meant this passage to carry a "surprise" connotation?