English translations translate יְהוָ֑ה as the direct object of אָ֭הַבְתִּי in Psalm 116:1, but its position puts it as the subject of יִשְׁמַ֥ע in the following clause starting with כִּֽי. There seems to be a consensus among English translations to do this. Is there a grammatical basis for doing this or is it only contextual.
The Septuagint (LXX) does not do this:
Αλληλουια. Ἠγάπησα, ὅτι εἰσακούσεται κύριος τῆς φωνῆς τῆς δεήσεώς μου,... (Ps 114:1, LXX)
Nor, the Biblia Sacra Vulgata:
Dilexi quoniam exaudiet Dominus vocem orationis meae
It appears that a more accurate translation of
אָ֭הַבְתִּי כִּֽי־יִשְׁמַ֥ע יְהוָ֑ה אֶת־קֹ֝ולִ֗י תַּחֲנוּנָֽי would be "I love that the LORD hears my voice, my pleas..."
That is how the 1917 Jewish Publication Society of America translates:
I love that the LORD should hear my voice and my supplications. (JPS1917)
But the 1985 Jewish Publication Society of America translates:
I love the LORD
for He hears my voice, my pleas;