Does David (at some point) think he himself is the prophesied messiah or king?

Question

From the beginning of Psalm 40, it is David talking about himself. Then verse 7 seems to be Jesus talking about himself, followed by David again talking about himself in the rest of the verses.

I think it's pretty clear that verse 7 is a reference to Jesus, because Hebrews chapter 10 is about Jesus being the ultimate and final sacrifice, and verses 5-9 reference Psalm 40:5-7. So, it feels like verse 7 is out of place in the middle of Psalm 40.…..unless David thinks he is the prophesied messiah or king.

If this is a correct understanding of verse 7, are there any other examples where David implies that he is the one prophesied?

If not, how is verse 7 supposed to be understood within the context of Psalm 40?

(10-18-24) After reading some of the answers and comments, I'd like to take a shot at clarifying my question.

I am viewing this from a Christian perspective and the belief that Jesus is the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy.

In Psalm 40, all the “I”, “my” and “me” pronouns appear to logically refer to “David”…. except verse 7. If you insert “David” in place of the “I” pronouns, it reads as though David is the one who has arrived according to what is written in the scroll.

Then said I (David), Lo, I (David) come: in the volume of the book it is written of me (David),

Reading verse 7 with the “David’s” makes sense grammatically and contextually. If you insert “Jesus” it aligns with the prophetic coming of the Messiah (and aligns with Hebrews 10:5-9)….but then it feels like an arbitrary statement inserted into Psalm 40.

As Anne pointed out, David did not have the advantage of viewing this from what we know now. That would also mean that anyone reading or hearing Psalm 40 would also not be able to connect verse 7 to Jesus. And at that point in history, they may be wondering…. Is David saying he is the one written about in the scrolls?

As an alternative example, Isaiah 53 is recognized in the Christian faith as a prophecy of Jesus Christ. When Isaiah talks about this person, Isaiah repeatedly uses “he”. And when he talks about how people will respond to this person, Isaiah uses pronouns like ‘we” and “our”. This grammar makes it clear to anyone hearing or reading Isaiah, that Isaiah is talking about someone other than himself.

Anne also presents the idea that the messianic prophecies were obscured and not fully understood by David……which appears to be validated in 2 Samuel 7:18

Then King David went in, sat in the LORD’s presence, and said, Who am I, Lord GOD, and what is my house that you have brought me this far? (CSB)

Maybe David’s frame of mind here in 2 Samuel (Lord who am I) makes it plausible that David thought (even for a portion of his journey) that he may be the one that scripture prophesied.

As I’m wrapping up here, it’s feeling less like a question and more like an observation. But I guess where I’m getting tripped up is….. If this verse is a prophecy of Jesus, how does it fit into the context of the rest of Psalm 40?

Answer 1

The question asks that, if king David did not think of himself as the foretold Messiah, "how is verse 7 supposed to be understood within the context of Psalm 40?"

Hopefully, this answer will give some evidence as to why David would not think of himself as the Messiah, but first, here is how verse 7 would have been understood by him.

David knew all about God's choosing of him, using the prophet Samuel to anoint him. When he did ascend the throne, a God-ordained task that all Israel's kings had to carry out was having the law of God written out, to have their own personal copy of it. This is commanded in Deuteronomy 17:

"And it shall be, when he sitteth upon the throne of his kingdom, that he shall write him a copy of this law in a book out of that which is before the priests the Levites. And it shall be with him, and he shall read therein all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the Lord his God, to keep all the words of this law and these statutes, to do them; That his heart be not lifted up above his brethren, and that he turn not aside from the commandment, to the right hand or to the left: to the end that he may prolong his days in his kingdom, he, and his children, in the midst of Israel." Deuteronomy 17:18-20 A.V.

That would likely be the meaning of verse 7, to David, in Psalm 40.

The problem we have is that we are looking backward, after Messiah had miraculously come, born of the virgin Mary. David was staring into an unknown future, with a veil preventing understanding of the messianic prophecies. It was only after Jesus' resurrection that he opened up prophecies to his followers:

"These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures. And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day," and so on. Luke 24:44-47 A.V.

The prophecies in the Old Testament, including prophetic lines in the Psalms, were inspired of the Holy Spirit. When the time was fulfilled, their meaning would become known, and all the Messianic prophecies would be seen to have been fulfilled in Christ alone. But Christ needed to start opening the meaning up for them, and the Holy Spirit brought to their remembrance what he had said (after he returned to heaven) so they could expand on that in the New Testament writings (John 15:26 & 16:13).

David died nearly 800 years before Messiah came, with many of his writings confessing his sins, show that, despite him being strident in his efforts to keep the book of the law he personally had for his daily perusal, he often failed. He would know that Messiah would not fail. And the ultimate evidence that David was looking ahead to one superior to himself is in Psalm 110:1, which Jesus quoted to refute those who denied that he was the Messiah:

"What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David. He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matthew 22:41-44 A.V. (emphasis mine)

Answer 2

Holocaust and sin-offering you do not request; so I said, “See; I come with an inscribed scroll written upon me. I delight to do your will, my God. Your law is in my inner being!” When I sing of your righteousness in a great assembly, behold, I do not restrain my lips, as you, Lord, know.

Therese verses have several interpretations.

• Christian - The psalmist (David) is speaking of Jesus, who, as God's son, is the only person who has God's law inscribed in his inner being.

• Christian and Jewish - The psalmist is speaking of himself (David) who was "a man after God's own heart." (1 Sam 13:14) Also, Christians believe that a sacrifice was indeed required - namely Jesus himself - while this psalm says otherwise in this case. So the psalmist was not referring to Jesus. .

• Critical - The psalmist is speaking about himself, but he is not David or Jesus, because neither of these people was a singer in the great assembly. The author was probably a pious Levite cantor or priest who sincerely observed God's law, which he knew by heart. The superscription "of David" is not part of the original composition.

There are various permutations of these interpretations as well. The OP's interpretation is one them.