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Paul said in Colossians 2:16,17:

"Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a celebration, or of a new moon, or of Sabbaths, which are a shadow of the coming things, but the body [is] of the Christ;"

God sanctified and blessed the Sabbath before the fall, when He finished creation.

Does this mean that God planned the fall?

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  • welcome to BHSC - I'm also a new user so will offer a brief comment rather than launching into a complex response inappropriately. Could you set out what connection you draw between the Sabbath, the shadow, and the Fall - more explicitly? Paul's words imply Sabbath celebrations are a shadow of the celebrations to come (in the Kingdom)... but do you also find an invitation in the text to extend to Genesis - that God's rest on the seventh day was a shadow of the Fall? I might not have understood and more words from you might help others even if I can't understand.
    – FelixLXX
    Commented Aug 1 at 14:26
  • @FelixLXX Paul is presenting 3 different things: celebrations, new moons and Sabbaths.
    – Índigo
    Commented Aug 1 at 15:19
  • Indigo, the verse you quote from refers to the ceremonial sabbaths and not the weekly seventh-day Sabbath so no, God did not plan the Fall.
    – Mintaka
    Commented Aug 1 at 15:20
  • The Seventh Day was sanctified and blessed. The Sabbath is a remembrance of the Seventh Day. It is a shadow because it remembers God rested on the Seventh Day, which was also blessed and sanctified. The first Sabbath would take place on the 14th day. Commented Aug 1 at 15:53
  • I understand the two given statements. Now maybe I'm extra dense this morning, but I haven't the slightest idea of what logic would be applied to those statements to arrive at the conclusion "that God planned the fall". Could you add the details behind the reasoning? Commented Aug 1 at 16:37

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Did God plan the "Fall"?
It is hard to see your connection with the Sabbath in this question, but this question does touch upon an important dilemma that perplexes the modern mind: Was the Fall of man into sin "planned" by God? And what part does "predestination" play in this...in conjunction with "free will"?

Illustration
An illustration drawn from what we all are familiar with may serve to answer this tricky question: schoolroom education!

A professor (or teacher) is in total control of the classroom. He sets up the schedule...chooses the textbook...writes the syllabus...grades the exams.

When a student enters the scene, the professor is told that if he\she follows the syllabus, earnestly studies the text, and passes the exam, he/she will be given a passing grade.

If, however, a student---the teacher informs---does not show up to class, is lethargetic in studying, and does not prepare for the exam, he/she will fail the class.

Now, the student is exercising "free will". He is not predestined to pass/fail. AND the professor has exercised complete Sovereignty all the while. The professor did not "plan" any student to fail. He did not "Plan the Fall".

Continuing the Illustration
The professor informs the student that "if" he/she fails the test, a make-up test will be given...and a perfect Mentor will aid the student in learning the class material! A rescue is preplanned by the compassionate professor, so there is no excuse for anyone to fail.

Sovereign Creator
Yes, God made fallible man, AND He made a rescue plan if/when mankind failed to obey the rules of life laid out by the Creator. He did not "plan the fall" but He made provision for its redemption.

The many rituals, sabbaths, sacrifices, holy days observed in the Old Testament (Tanach) were signs given by God to remind everyone "that help was on the way"! They pointed to the Mentor, the Savior, who would make possible that no one should ever have excuse to fail on Judgment Day!

So, God did not plan the fall, but He did plan the Rescue for those who did fall! The "shadows" find fulfilment in this ultimate Rescue; they did their job. Now we live in the sunshine of the Light of the world.

Sabbath
The symbolism of the "Sabbath" is found in the Resting of God from the works of Creation, not in the future "Fall of man into sin" later in the Garden of Eden. And it is interpreted in the book of Hebrews for us:

For we who have believed do enter into rest, as He said, "As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into My rest"---although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
For He spoke in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, "And God did rest the seventh day from all His works." (Hebrews 4:3-4

The writer explained that those who follow Christ have symbolically entered into the same kind of rest from trying to work for their Salvation:

There remains therefore a rest to the people of God. For he that is entered into His rest, he also has ceased from his own works, as God did from His.
Let us labor therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief [as the Israelites committed]. (Hebrews 4:9-11)

God's original plan was for all men to rest with Him in the Garden of Earth and enjoy Creation...AND His effulgent holy Presence, walking with Him in the cool of the evening!

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  • It is hard to see your connection with the Sabbath in this question - the connection is the the 'Sabbath' was instituted in Creation. So if observance of the Sabbath was a 'shadow of things to come' as Colossians claims than the Sabbath was always meant to not be observed forever Commented Sep 16 at 18:32
  • @Avi Avraham - Thank you for your response. Consider, however, the meaning of Shadow: something that prophetically prefigures a person or event or rite, such that when the fulfillment comes , the shadow is no longer necessary. The shadow has done its job in leading us to the "substance. Peace.
    – ray grant
    Commented Sep 16 at 19:38
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God allowed the fall because he loved us so much he gave us free will(its not true love if we’re controlled robots)he is omniscient. He knew what man would do and planned a rescue. Not sure if this should’ve been in comments or answer.

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    @ Alison- Thank you for your contribution in answering this question. Theologically, this has been a topic of much debate. Foreknowledge is not the same as "planning." But as you wrote, God did from the very beginning, "plan a rescue." Christ was slain from the foundation of the world!...It is best in answering to add some scriptures or commentaries references to back up your answers. That would give more credibility to your efforts. Keep studying the Bible; it's great for the soul!
    – ray grant
    Commented Aug 5 at 22:53
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God knew that humanity would fall. The fall was necessary in order to show the nature of who we are as humans. Humanity fell at the garden. God's chosen nation of Israel fell at the stoning death of Stephen. God removed all barriers to Him through Jesus Christ, but now shows us that even to have faith alone in Him alone is often still too much to ask.

Romans chapter 11 indicates that "the fall" was indeed God's plan. He certainly knew it would occur and allowed it to. Romans chapter 11 addresses this and verse 32 gives the specific reason as to why (in bold below).

Romans 11:7-15

What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded. 8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear;) unto this day. 9 And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a trap, and a stumblingblock, and a recompence unto them: 10 Let their eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their back alway. 11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. 12 Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? 13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: 14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them. 15 For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?

Cont...

Romans 11:30-36

For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: 31 Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy. 32 For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all. 33 O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out! 34 For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor? 35 Or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? 36 For of him, and through him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.

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    @ Mark Vestal - Thank you for your response. However, it seems that the Fall referred to in the OP was the "Fall in the Garden of Eden." The Falling away of Israel in unfaithfulness, which you address by scripture, is a different topic altogether! Important in theology, but to the point here.
    – ray grant
    Commented Sep 13 at 20:54
  • @Mark Vestal You have not said which translation you have used. ESV does not say "them all" but "all". I agree with you but not from your translation. Ro 11:25-31 centres on Israel but in V32 a contrast: "all", i,e,. not just Israel becomes the new focus. On this site see: "Is God responsible for the Unbelief of the unconverted Mankind, according to Romans 11:32?"
    – C. Stroud
    Commented Sep 14 at 9:40
  • @raygrant My mistake, but I believe it still fits, as all humanity has fallen for the purpose of all requiring God's mercy (to Paul's point)...whether it be Eden, Israel, or us Gentiles. Commented Sep 16 at 16:57
  • @C.Stroud I quoted from the KJV. "Them all" is to encompass all humanity I believe. Commented Sep 16 at 16:58
  • @Mark Vestal What you quoted in your answer prompted me to ask on this site: "Why might the NKJV put "them all" where the ESV puts "all" in Romans 11:232?"
    – C. Stroud
    Commented Sep 16 at 17:03

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