In Deuteronomy 22 and 24, only men were allowed to produce a bill of divorce. Although in the case of adultery, both sexes are criminally responsible, in the case of Deuteronomy 22 and 24, there does not seem to be an equivalent law for women finding such uncleanness in their husband.
(Deuteronomy 24:1, NKJV) When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house
(Deuteronomy 22:13-15, NKJV) If any man takes a wife, and goes in to her, and detests her, and charges her with shameful conduct, and brings a bad name on her, and says, ‘I took this woman, and when I came to her I found she was not a virgin,’ then the father and mother of the young woman shall take and bring out the evidence of the young woman’s virginity to the elders of the city at the gate.
It is my understanding that rabbis generally also allowed women to divorce their husbands. That is a broader issue. But the more specific question is, could there not be uncleanness found in a man, as in general sexual indecency, impropriety, or something of the like, which, though not at the level of adultery (for which the punishment is death), would legally allow divorce -- a male equivalent to women's purity laws? And if not, why not?
Obviously the Bible is not completely egalitarian, but I wonder how to address this in today's context, where this is seen as a slight against women, who would not have had the same recourse as men. How do theologians explain this apparent unfairness towards women?
Related questions:
Did Moses compromise by allowing the Israelites to divorce in Deutoronomy 24:1?
What does the phrase "uncleanliness in her" refer to in Deuteronomy 24:1?