It is acknowledged by nearly all Christian denominations that Isaiah 53 is a prophetic reference to the crucifixion and substitutionary Death of none other than Jesus Christ.
And verses 8-10 specifically state that He did die: "...He was cut off from the land of the living...He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death...the Lord makes His life a guilt offering...". But then the next verse (v. 11) reads:
After the suffering of His soul. He will see the light [of life], and be satisfied... (53:11)
The prepositional phrase, "of life" is added by the NIV. Is this so that the thought of a Resurrection is apparent? Is this a valid addition that is inherent in the Hebrew syntax? There is a footnote referring the reader to the Dead Sea Scrolls, and the LXX, for a justification of this.
The Jewish Masoretic text (500-1000 A.D.) is translated as "He will see the results of the suffering of his soul, and be satisfied...". Was this rendering by the Masoretic scribes in this later compilation of the Bible, an attempt to obscure the idea of a Resurrection? Should we stick to the older Dead Sea Manuscript text (and the pre-Christian LXX)?
Even with the Masoretic rendering, a person would have to be "alive" in some fashion, to be able to see. Is this "seeing" sufficient to build a case for His Resurrection?