Being the Easter season I was reading this section a couple weeks ago and noticed something. I'm not sure if the passage is saying Jesus had actual holes or marks in his hands and/or side. All I can see it saying is that he showed them his hands and sides. But it says nothing of what they saw.
[John 20:19 ESV] On the evening of that day, the first day of the week, the doors being locked where the disciples were for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them and said to them, "Peace be with you." [20] When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his side. Then the disciples were glad when they saw the Lord.
Once this thought occurred to me I read Thomas' encounter carefully:
[John 20:24 ESV] Now Thomas, one of the Twelve, called the Twin, was not with them when Jesus came.
[25] So the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord." But he said to them, "Unless I see in his hands the mark of the nails, and place my finger into the mark of the nails, and place my hand into his side, I will never believe."
[26] Eight days later, his disciples were inside again, and Thomas was with them. Although the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you."
[27] Then he said to Thomas, "Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe."
[28] Thomas answered him, "My Lord and my God!"
[29] Jesus said to him, "Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."
Is Thomas' reaction because he saw the marks in the hands and felt a hole in Jesus' side with his hand, or was it a reaction to Jesus' presence and that he knew Thomas doubted? Was the reaction more to do with Thomas' being humbled by his disbelief and less to do with Jesus' body?
In both cases, being shown seems to be the proof that he is their Lord, which would seem to imply there were marks. However, recognizing Jesus after his resurrection seems to involve more than just seeing or feeling him, like how he walked with the men on the road to Emmaus and he wasn't revealed to their eyes until afterward.
Thomas' earlier statement could simply be an over-the-top claim. A loud denial exaggerating that he would need to feel Jesus' side. Thomas could see Jesus well, a man he knew and recognized, standing in front of him. Seeing his healed body when they knew it to be injured would almost be as much if not more proof of the power of his resurrection than seeing a man with open wounds walking around.
Summary
- Does the text demand that Jesus have actual marks in his hands and side or not?
- Does Thomas' statement of disbelief, what Jesus says to Thomas, and then Thomas' exclamation recognizing Jesus mean he saw or physically felt Jesus' side (with or without marks)?
I recognize there are some systematic doctrinal matters at play here regarding the state of Jesus body then and even how it relates to our own future resurrection. I'm fine with answers including this as support or background for an answer, but such influences should be acknowledged and stated as part of the answer.
<tangent>
Clearly Caravaggio thought so! "...The depiction of the Incredulity of Thomas has a long tradition in the visual arts ... not only in paintings but also in sculpture, prints, and decorative arts, from Early Christian time through the Baroque era." Liana De Girolami Cheney, "Giorgio Vasari's Incredulity of Saint Thomas, 1569–1572", Visual Resources 27/1 (2011), pp. 90-105 (quote on p. 93). Cheney traces this handling of the tradition back to the 13th C: Jacobus de Voragine's Golden Legend.</tangent>