4

According to the scriptures, Jesus told his apostles to go to all nations and preach the gospel. Paul says that mission was accomplished by the time of his writing to the Colossians and Romans:

Colossians 1:23-If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;

Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

14 How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?

15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!

16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?

17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

18 But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.

Does Romans 10:18 imply that the Apostles took the Gospel to, for example, the Americas?

2

4 Answers 4

3

No. Reading the scriptures written and spoken 2,000 years ago as though they were written in our time, our generation is anachronistic. We cannot read the NT scriptures and think in current socio-economic conditions. We must think as those of that generation did. Their world was the one where Judea was a province of the ancient Roman empire, and their world consisted of conquered nations that all became provinces of Rome.

The "world" translated in Rom. 10:18 as well as in Matt. 24:14 is Strong's Gr. 3625, "oikoumene," and is defined as the inhabited earth. (1) The usage is the same as was meant in Luke 2:1.

"(properly: the land that is being inhabited, the land in a state of habitation), the inhabited world, that is, the Roman world, for all outside it was regarded as of no account."

"And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be taxed." (Luke 2:1, KJV)

Augustus could only tax the lands over which he ruled. He had no authority to tax anyone outside the empire. But, the word "world" was used to indicate the known world of their day - the Roman empire.

Excerpt from my post "Frequent Mistakes -Part IV: Where Was All the World?" :

The second use of “oikoumené” is found in Acts 19:27.

"So that not only this our craft is in danger to be set at nought; but also that the temple of the great goddess Diana should be despised, and her magnificence should be destroyed, whom all Asia and the world [oikoumené] worshippeth.” (KJV)

The “world” here referred to all the lands that worshiped the pagan goddess Diana, which at that time was Asia and the surrounding pagan nations. Ellicott’s Commentary defines it.

“Asia is, of course, the proconsular province, and the “world” is used conventionally, as in Luke 2:1, for the Roman empire. Apuleius uses language almost identical with that of Demetrius, “Diana Ephesia cujus nomen unicum . . . totus veneratur orbis.” Source: http://biblehub.com/commentaries/acts/19-27.htm.

So, the pagan nation(s) which worshiped the goddess Diana was one of the provinces of the Roman empire. A nation ... a province of Rome. Because, Rome acquired more territories as it conquered a people who occupied a certain land or nation, and then added those nations to their empire as a province of Rome.

The Romans distinguished Republican provinces which were controlled by the Senate, and the Imperial provinces which were ruled by representatives of Caesar who answered only to Caesar. A list of the Roman provinces in 14 AD is available here, and included Sicilia, Germania, Hispania, Africa, Asia, Macedonia, Gallia, Syria, Cyprus, and Judea.

The Romans kept conquering nations throughout the first century AD and, by the time Revelation was written in 66-68 AD, they had added Mauretaina, Britannia, Thracia, the Alps of Italy, Switzerland, and France.

The world and the nations of the world during the time in which the books of the New Testament were written was the old Roman empire.

Therefore, Christ’s prophesy in Matthew 24:14 can be paraphrased for our understanding as follows:

“And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in [in all of the Roman empire] for a witness unto [all the people who inhabit the Roman provinces]; and then shall the end come.”

The Bible was not written in English, and the New Testament was not written yesterday. When reading the Bible we have to put ourselves in their shoes, and their time period, their age, their political world, and their culture.

Paul stated in Col. 1:23,

“If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;” (KJV)

“Every creature under heaven” was every person under the rule of the heaven of the earthly kingdom of the Roman empire. As the book of Colossians was written about 61-62 AD (see DatingTheNewTestament), then according to Paul, the gospel had been preached in “all the world” by 61 – 62 AD. (2)

Notes:

  1. Oikoumene - Strong's Gr. 3625: biblehub

  2. Frequent Mistakes Part IV - ShreddingTheVeil

2

You are ‘reading in’ your reasoning. Adding ‘reasoning’ to interpretation is a (one) primary cause of confusion and debate amongst Bible teachers.

Where as the truth is simple. The gospel had indeed been ‘preached’ to every nation, by the time Paul wrote to the church in Colossae.

First, the [Biblical] understanding of ‘every nation’ uses the 70 or so nations that were divided up during the times of Babel. Only ‘reasoning’ says … “all nations [therefore add ‘reasoning’] therefore this must mean America.”.

‘Adding’ results in mixture. And the effect of Mixture can be read about in chapter 4 of Colossians - and that warning was directed to the Laodiceans.

Here is the ‘evidence’. At Pentecost, Peter proclaimed the Gospel. And who was there ‘hearing’ this?

ACTS 2:5 Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven.

0

No, Jesus said so

Great question. Many may wonder.

No evidence

Your first passage, Colossians 1:23, says nothing about "completion". "Every creature under heaven" is not the same as "every single creature that has ever walked on the face of earth". Rather, this is expressing that the gospel was preached to any-and-all without bias.

Your second passage, Romans 10:13-18, centers on v18, "went into all the earth". This doesn't mean it reached every part, just that it "went", specifically identifying where it went to.

As for the Americas, there is no mention of anything that could fit that description.

There isn't anything to prove in answering, "No," as I have. The burden of proof is on the asker, and here there is absolutely no proof that the Great Commission has been fulfilled whatsoever.

But, consider what Jesus said in words much more direct than the words you take to suspect to the contrary...

Jesus said so

In fact, if you want to look to whether the New Testament believes that preaching the gospel has been 100% completed, consider the Olivet Discourse. The context is the events around the end of the age.

Mark said it in short, as Mark does, then Matthew said it more elaborately. That's two witnesses that Jesus provided an answer to your question with a "no".

Mark 13:10 (NASB)

The gospel must first be preached to all the nations.

Matthew 24:14 (NASB)

This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come.

-1

You quoted Romans 10:13: “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved”.

This started already in Genesis 4:26. And since the people in the Americas descended from the ancestors of these first worshippers the path to salvation would have been in existence among the world’s population from quite an early time.

Consequently, some kind of missionary activity must have been in existence in the America’s, but not necessarily through the activity of Jesus’ apostles.

Furthermore, Rom 2:11-16 seems to teach that true spirituality can be nurtured by gentiles without much interaction with appointed intermediaries. If so, this would be similar to how many saints of the Old Testament got saved; namely through suffering "the reproach of Christ". (Heb 11:26)

So when Jesus and his apostles preached about the eternal importance of repentance they actually highlighted an old, somewhat obscure, spiritual principle of salvation. (Mat 3:2; Heb 13:8)

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.