How can Jacob claim that God answered him (Gen 35:3) when there is no record of Jacob petitioning or praying to God in Genesis 28?
Genesis 35:3 "Then come, let us go up to Bethel, where I will build an altar to God, who answered me in the day of my distress and who has been with me wherever I have gone.”
Jacob's dream in Genesis 28:10-15 is usually taught or explained as if God is here initiating everything without any prior interest on behalf of Jacob however Jacob's later description of this event as a response or answer from God seems to suggest the opposite. Wenham in his Genesis commentary makes the following remark about this but I am not sure what he is implying"
Note how the ptcp (“answered“) in the relative clause is continued by finite verb (“has been“) (GKC, 116o,x; WOC, 561, 631).
Wenham, Gordon John. Genesis 16-50, Volume 2 (Word Biblical Commentary) (p. 320). Zondervan Academic. Kindle Edition.