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We read in Psalm 124: 2,3 &8. (KJV):

If it had not been the Lord who was on our side, when men rose up against us: 3 Then they had swallowed us up quick, when their wrath was kindled against us:................ 8 Our help is in the name of the Lord, who made heaven and earth.

Verse 8 could have simply said: "Our help is the Lord". However, that it specifically states "in the name of the Lord" implies that the phrase has a deeper meaning. Did Israel use God's name to effectively scare their enemies?

Did God himself speak to the enemies and tell them of the consequences if they attacked His people? And was God's name equally revered by Israel's enemies as was by Israel? What is the significance of the phrase "in the name of the Lord"?

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What is the significance of the phrase "in the name of the Lord"?

The name of the Lord represents His character and nature. This means that invoking His name is invoking His attributes. His faithfulness, power, mercy, and justice. It’s a declaration of trust in who God is and what He has promised to do.

In the thinking of the ancient Hebrews (and also in other ancient cultures), the name represented a person’s character and nature. (Enduring Word)

The Israelites’ trust was rooted in their knowledge of God’s character.

"Is in the name of the Lord." Jehovah's revealed character is our foundation of confidence, his person is our sure fountain of strength. "Who made heaven and earth." Our Creator is our preserver. He is immensely great in his creating work... (Treasury of David)


Did Israel use God’s name to scare their enemies?

Yes. At least, invoking God’s name likely had a psychological impact on Israel’s enemies. Israel’s God had a reputation as a powerful and protective God. For instance, in 1 Samuel 4:7-8, the Philistines express fear upon hearing that the Ark of the Covenant (God’s presence), had entered the Israelite camp. They seemed to recall the plagues God had inflicted on Egypt, which caused them to fear.


Did God himself speak to the enemies and tell them of the consequences if they attacked His people?

The Bible does not frequently record God speaking directly to Israel’s enemies to warn them of consequences. Usually it was through a prophet. Does it ever record God speaking directly? In a sense.

In Genesis 20:3-7 God appeared to Abimelech in a dream, warning him that he was a dead man because he had taken Sarah, Abraham’s wife. God told Abimelech to return Sarah to Abraham to avoid death.


Was God's name equally revered by Israel's enemies as was by Israel?

Reverence for God’s name among Israel’s enemies varied:

For example, the Philistines, recognized the power of God. In 1 Samuel 4:7-8, the Philistines express their fear and acknowledge the might of the God who struck Egypt with plagues.

However, others like the Assyrians under Sennacherib, showed contempt and defiance against God. In 2 Kings 18:17-35 Rabshakeh mocked God and His ability to save Jerusalem.


To conclude: For the ancient Hebrews, a name was more than a label; it was a declaration of trust in God’s attributes and promises.

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    Thanks, Jason_ for the point -by- point inputs. Some additional points from your side would be most welcome. Commented Sep 4 at 9:23
  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan Sure I could add a bit. Are there certain points you would like me to elaborate upon?
    – Jason_
    Commented Sep 5 at 3:09
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In OT Hebrew thinking, "in the Name of the LORD" usually meant one of several closely related things:

  • with the authority of the LORD, Deut 18:7, 22, Jer 26:9
  • with the power of the LORD, 2 Kings 2:24, Isa 50:10, Ps 124:8
  • at the instigation/behest of the LORD, 2 Chron 33:18, Jer 3:17
  • with the reverence, dignity and honor associated with the LORD, Deut 18:7, 1 Sam 20:42, 2 Sam 6:18, Micah 4:5, 2 Kings 11:4. See especially Num 6:22-27.

At times several of these all coalesced at once such as Ps 118:26.

In the case of Ps 124:8, the primary meaning appears to "with the power of the LORD". However, I would not rule out authority of the LORD.

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