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"In the year of King Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on the throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple. Vs2, Seraphim stood above Him, each having six wings; with two he covered his face and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. Vs3, "And one called out to another and said, "Holy, Holy, Holy, is the Lord of hosts, The whole earth is full of His glory."

(Disclaimer! My question "assumes" the Trinity is true. If the Trinity is not true, who did Isaiah say he saw sitting on the throne?)

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    The author of Isaiah does not identify any 'persons of the Trinity' Commented Aug 19 at 18:03
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    Doesn't it go with it being a throne in a prophetic vision that that's the Trinity's business not ours. If we were needed to know that, Isaiah would've been specific. And if we were really needed to know about that - we'd see it ourselves rather than reading about it in Isaiah. It's a question of the prophetic format - why they see what they see is an open question.
    – FelixLXX
    Commented Aug 19 at 18:18
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    If one thinks and assumes God is a trinity and is divisible then that one should identify who is sitting. If one assumes God is a trinity and is indivisible, then then that one is assuming that all three persons are sitting.. The LOTD in the verse 2 is Jehovah, There is no record in the bible that states YHWH is divisible and is compose of 3 persons Commented Aug 19 at 23:13
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    It appears to be only one - Rev 4:2 Immediately I was in the Spirit, and behold, a throne was set in heaven, and One sitting upon the throne, Commented Aug 30 at 10:12
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    @Mr.Bond. I will answer this question if you define the trinity and explain why do you think one of the person of the trinity is sitting on the throne using this verse when this verse does not say anything at all about the trinity.. You have to prove that your assumption is true for this question to be valid. Using this verse when it say nothing about the trinity invalidates it. You use this question based on your assumption that you have no verse to base it on. If the trinity is composed of the the Father, Jesus and Holy spirit, is Jesus the Father,the Son and holy spirit at the same time,? Commented Aug 30 at 23:12

9 Answers 9

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This is both a tongue-in-cheek and serious answer.

Revelation 4 depicts a person sitting on the throne and being worshiped. Chapter 5 references another person, called, "the Lamb", who has been found worthy to open the scroll. This person is also worshiped. This person is obviously the 2nd person of the Trinity. But, the point I'm making here is that a different person was sitting on the throne in chapter 4. The only reasonable solution is to assume that the person of chapter 4 is the Father.

I also think it's reasonable to think that this passage in Revelation is a clear allusion to the Isaiah passage. The Isaiah passage talks about people being hardened. The Revelation passage expects the opposite result, once the scroll is opened. The venue is the same; the results are opposites.

So, answer: The first person of the Trinity, the Father, is the one sitting on the throne.

According to John 12:37-41, Isaiah sees the Son of God on the throne.

But though He had performed so many signs in their sight, they still were not believing in Him. 38 This happened so that the word of Isaiah the prophet which he spoke would be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” 39 For this reason they could not believe, for Isaiah said again, 40 “He has blinded their eyes and He hardened their heart, so that they will not see with their eyes and understand with their heart, and be converted, and so I will not heal them.”

Note: The "him" being referred to is Jesus. And note the two quotes from Isaiah 6.

John then says this:

41 These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke about Him.

Isaiah

  1. Saw his glory
  2. and spoke about him

When did Isaiah see his glory? Isaiah 6:3 says, "The whole earth is full of His glory.” But, the 'his' has got to refer to Jesus here in John.

The passage the OP cites (in fact, all of Isaiah 6) is the reference John refers to.

So, answer: The second person of the Trinity, the Son, is the one sitting on the throne.

In John 3:4-8, it says:

4 Nicodemus *said to Him, “How can a person be born when he is old? He cannot enter his mother’s womb a second time and be born, can he?” 5 Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless someone is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. 6 That which has been born of the flesh is flesh, and that which has been born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not be amazed that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’ 8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but you do not know where it is coming from and where it is going; so is everyone who has been born of the Spirit.

In the original, there's a very obvious play on the words translated "wind" and "spirit". They're the same word. The point Jesus is making is that a person does not see the Spirit, but can see the effects.

So, answer: The third person of the Trinity, the Spirit, is the one sitting on the throne (he just can't be seen).

Conclusion:

The tongue-in-cheek nature of this answer is because to try to split God into different parts is ultimately doomed to fail. Scripture doesn't support it. I sincerely hope I haven't offended anyone with my somewhat humorous twist to the answer. The form of the answer is intended to convey the absurdity. And I hope that's acceptable and a little entertaining.

The serious nature of this answer is that Scripture defines a single God in terms of three persons. Monotheism is true. God existing in three persons is true. Scripture supports it.

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The Whole Description
In trying to interpret any scripture it is always best to keep the verse deep within its context. Usually the surrounding verses provide added information that aid in our understanding.

Such is the case with this Question. We don't know which translation the Questioner has used; but the following NIV translation will provide adequate responses:

In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord, high and exalted, seated on a throne, and the train of his robe filled the temple.
Above him were seraphim, each with six wings...and they were calling to one another: "Holy, holy, holy, is the LORD Almighty; the whole earth is full of his glory."
..."Woe is me, I cried. "I am ruined! Fir I am a man of unclean lips, and I live among a people of unclean lips, and my eyes have seen the King, the LORD Almighty." (Isaiah 6:1-3, 5 NIV)

Self interpreting This whole passage is self-interpreting. In the habit of modern translators, the Hebrew word for God, YHWH, is written in English with all capital letters. If just lower case letters are used, usually it means that the word adonai is being translated ("Lord", which could refer to God or a man.)

So here we see that at first lower case letters are used, so the meaning is ambiguous. (6:1) But when the seraphim are shown worshipping, they are said to have used LORD Almighty (YHWH). A direct reference to Father God---or the collective "one triunity". (6:3)

To verify this, we notice the words of Isaiah, My eyes have seen the King, the Lord Almighty. (6:5) The most high, effable, ineffable Name of God is used again, YHWH; and the appellation of "King" is added. The collective "one triunity is intended.

Collective Triunity It is true that Deuteronomy declared that "The LORD our God, the LORD is one". (6:4) [or The LORD is our God, the LORD alone NIV, ftnt.] But we also recall that Jesus declared, "I and the Father are one"(John 10:30). And it is revealed in Holy Writ that the Holy Spirit "emanates (proceeds) from the Father" (Acts 1:4). So all three inhabit all Eternity, co-existent, of the same essence...such that what is said of one includes the others. When YHWH is said to be seated on a throne in the Old Testament, this includes the whole triunity!

[Disclaimer addition: "If the Trinity is not true..." statement is feckless, meaningless, and not worthy of consideration. It is superfluous.]

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    Jesus also said John 17:21-22 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. 22 And the glory which You gave Me I have given them, that they may be one just as We are one: - that would make them all part of the trinity! Commented Aug 30 at 10:47
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In the Old Testament it will often be either the Son (the Logos as the Church Fathers would call him) or the Spirit (also known as the Ruach). The second and third persons of the Trinity. The Church Fathers make it clear that the Son and the Spirit are 'sent', the Father is not. He does the sending. The Son and the Spirit 'proceed' from the Father. Consequently, Isaiah 6 presents us with Yahweh (the LORD), who would be the Logos, aka the pre-incarnate Jesus, sitting on the throne.
It is to be noted that when Isaiah sees this vision he is acting as a priest in Jerusalem. So he is surrounded by the cherubim embroidered on the cloth of the temple, making his sacrifices at the altar. This reality is replaced by the vision - which is ironically a greater reality - and the altar where Isaiah is making a sacrifice becomes his place of purification.
Then the Logos can send him, just as less than 1,000 years later that same Person will send his Apostles!

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  • Isaiah 6 does indeed present us with the one being seated on the throne, i.e. Yahweh, but your finding that this must therefore be the Logos is arrived at with no reasoning, and is therefore not a logical conclusion. As for the rest of your answer, Isaiah does indeed make a prayerful sacrifice and we see his iniquity then taken away, particularly after he offers his services, but you then continue with your illogical reasoning. Of course, you would not be making these claims if you were not a Trinitarian, but context here is the key to these 3 vv. It's a downvote from me. Commented Sep 1 at 18:54
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As my four predecessors wrote, the one on the throne is Jesus Christ.

The scripture consistently talks about two forms of the divinity. The unseen, we call God the Father. And the visible and perceivable by our senses we call the Son/the Word:

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. (John 1:18)

No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father. (John 6:46)

No one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made complete in us. (1 John 4:12)

The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. (Colossians 1:15)

The one on the throne in Isaiah 6:1 is easily identified because the prophet himself told us who that was. You see, there are only three instances where the pair "lofty" and "exalted" (רם ונשא Ram Venisa in Hebrew), appear together in that book. These are Isaiah 6:1, 52:13 and 57:15. The first and the last talk about the Lord:

In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord, high and exalted, seated on a throne; and the train of his robe filled the temple. (Isaiah 6:1)

For this is what the high and exalted One says— he who lives forever, whose name is holy: “I live in a high and holy place, but also with the one who is contrite and lowly in spirit, to revive the spirit of the lowly and to revive the heart of the contrite. (Isaiah 57:15)

The second is the suffering servant, the Messiah:

See, my servant will act wisely; he will be raised and lifted up and highly exalted. Just as there were many who were appalled at him — his appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any human being and his form marred beyond human likeness — so he will sprinkle many nations, and kings will shut their mouths because of him. For what they were not told, they will see, and what they have not heard, they will understand. (Isaiah 52:13-15)

So the conclusion is the Lord and the suffering servant are the same person.

As a bonus, I am going to give you a quote from the Targum of the Book of Isaiah:

8 And I heard the voice of the WORD of the Lord, which said, Whom shall I send to prophesy? and who will go to teach? Then said I, Here am I, send me. 9 And He said, Go, and tell this people, who are diligently hearing, but understand not, and see diligently, but know not. (Isaiah 6:8-9)

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Might I point out that the scene location changes in chapter 4,5 and 6 to the throne room of heaven. So the argument that the church not being mentioned in those chapters kind of falls apart.

It’s like saying that the church not being mentioned as being in heaven is somehow evidence that they are there.

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  • Welcome to the Biblical Hermeneutics SE Scott. Please take a moment to take the site tour and check out what we are looking for in answers and the FAQs. We're passionate about high quality answers. This doesn't address the main question. We look for answers that show research was done. Consider adding citations, quotations, and reliable sources.
    – Jason_
    Commented Aug 25 at 18:23
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Answer

Unity, Binity or Trinity, the One sitting on the throne according to Isaiah 6:1-3 is none other than Jesus Christ the Lord.

Explanation

Case # 1:-

No man has seen God the Father at any time in history. This is what the Scripture states emphatically:

No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, that One declares Him” (John 1:18).

Yet we see in the Old Testament people seeing Yahweh God.

For example, Moses prayed to Yahweh to see Him in His “glory” unlike in human form when Abraham and Jacob saw Him:

“And he (Moses) said, I pray, let me see Your glory” (Exo 33:18).

Then what happened?

“And He (Yahweh) said, I will cause all My goodness to pass before your face…….And as My glory is passing it will be that I will put you in a cleft of the rock; and I will cover My hand over you during My passing. And I will remove My hand, and you shall see My back” (Exo 33:19, 22-23).

There it is, Moses saw God in His real form!

But according to John 1:18, Moses did not see God the Father!!

Then whom did he see in Exodus 33:19-23?

Of course, he saw Yahweh who was the pre-Incarnate Jesus Christ the Lord.

How did the Son declare the Father according to John 1:18?

Let us see:

“And I (Yahweh) will call out (that is, declare) the name of Jehovah (God the Father) before your face” (Exo 33:19).

“And Jehovah passed by before his face and called out (that is, declared): Jehovah! Jehovah God (God the Father)! Merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and great in goodness and truth……” (Exo 34:6).

We see, Yahweh declaring Yahweh, here.

But, John 1:18 says the only Son “declares” the Father!

Case # 2:-

No one has seen God the Father at any time:

No one has seen God at any time” (1 John 4:12).

Yet, Moses, Aaron, Nadab, Abihu and 70 elders of Israel all saw Yahweh:

“And Moses and Aaron went up with Nadab and Abihu, and seventy from the elders of Israel. And they saw the God of Israel. And under His feet was as the work of a pavement of sapphire, and the same as the essence of the heavens for clearness. And He did not stretch out His hand to the nobles of the sons of Israel. And they saw God, and they ate and drank” (Exo 24:9-11).

a) Who is the God of Israel? Yes, it is Yahweh alone. So, they saw Yahweh.

b) “pavement of sapphire under His feet” shows that this was a real sight.

c) “Yahweh did not kill them” shows that they really saw Yahweh.

d) “they ate and drank” shows clearly that this was not a vision or that they were not sedated.

So, the question is, if no man has seen God the Father any time, whom did these many people see, here?

Of course, they all saw Yahweh who was the pre-Incarnate Jesus Christ the Lord.

Case # 3:-

No man has seen God the Father at any time in history.

not that anyone has seen the Father (God), except the One being from God, He has seen the Father” (John 6:46).

Yet, we see that prophet Micaiah saw Yahweh “sitting on His throne”:

“And he (Micaiah) said, Therefore, hear the Word of Jehovah: I saw Jehovah sitting on His throne, and all the host of Heaven were standing by Him, on His right and on His left” (1 Kings 22:19).

But no one has seen God the Father at any time. So, whom did prophet Micaiah see here?

Of course, he saw Yahweh who was the pre-Incarnate Jesus Christ the Lord.

Son was sent by Father / Yahweh sends Yahweh

The New Testament Scripture says that God the Father sent the Son:

“that the Father has sent the Son as Savior of the world” (1 John 4:14).

The Old Testament Scripture says that Yahweh sent Yahweh:

“Come near to Me (Jehovah); hear this: I (Jehovah) have not spoken in secret from the beginning. From its being, I (Jehovah) was there; and now the Lord Jehovah, and His Spirit, has sent Me (Jehovah)” (Isaiah 48:16).

“I, Jehovah, will hasten it in its time. The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on Me (Jehovah), because Jehovah has anointed Me (Jehovah) to preach the gospel to the meek” (Isaiah 60:22-61:1).

“For so says Jehovah of Hosts: He has sent Me (Jehovah) after glory, to the nations who plundered you; for he who touches you touches the pupil of His eye. For, behold, I (Jehovah) will shake My hand over them, and they shall be a prize for their servants. And you shall know that Jehovah has sent Me (Jehovah)” (Zech 2:8-9).

Prophet Zechariah and Apostle John

Zechariah:

“Sing and rejoice, O daughter of Zion. For, lo, I (Jehovah) come; and I (Jehovah) will dwell among you, says Jehovah. And many nations (Gentiles) shall be joined to Jehovah in that day, and they shall be My people” (Zech 2:10-11).

John:

“He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him” (John 1:11).

[Hence the Gospel was declared to the Gentiles!]

Zechariah:

“And I (Jehovah) will dwell among you; and you shall know that Jehovah of Hosts has sent Me (Jehovah) to you” (Zech 2:11).

John:

“Righteous Father, indeed the world did not know You, but I knew You; and these have known that You sent Me” (John 17:25).

Prophet Isaiah and Apostle John

Isaiah:

“then I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up. And His train filled the temple…….. And one cried to the other and said, Holy, holy, holy is Jehovah of Hosts; all the earth is full of His glory!” (Isaiah 6:1,3).

Just as Prophet Micaiah saw Yahweh “sitting on His throne” (1 Kings 22:19), Prophet Isaiah saw Yahweh “sitting on a throne” here.

Yet, no one has seen God the Father at any time.

John:

Isaiah said these things when he saw His (Jesus’) glory, and spoke about Him (Jesus)” (John 12:41).

Conclusion

Isaiah says he saw Yahweh sitting on the throne. John says Isaiah was talking about Jesus as the pre-Incarnate Yahweh as sitting on the throne.

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Isaiah 6
Does Isaiah 6 describe a scene in which more than one divine person is present?

In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord, את־אדני sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train[fn] of his robe filled the temple. (6:1)

The Hebrew is aleph-tav Adonai, not YHVH.

Next Isaiah says this:

And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts!” (6:5)

The Hebrew is את־המּלך יהוה צבאות, aleph-tav hamelek YHVH Saba.

Finally Isaiah says:

Then I said, “How long, O Lord?”... (6:11)

The Hebrew is אֲדֹנָ֑י Adonai.

More than one divine person being present would explain why Isaiah uses different terms.

John
According to John's Gospel, Isaiah saw Jesus:

38 So that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” 39 Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said 40 “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them." 41 Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him.

Conclusion
John's Gospel directs the reader to Isaiah. He makes no effort to explain "Lord" in the Greek translation should not be confused with the practice of saying Adonai when reading YHVH. John leads everyone reading Isaiah in the Greek translation to understand Isaiah saw Jesus.

Isaiah 6:1 (LXX)

And it came to pass in the year in which king Ozias died, that I saw the Lord sitting on a high and exalted throne

John says Jesus was the one on the throne.

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    +1 You got it. Vs41, "These things Isaiah said, because (or why?) he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. The "Him" is Jesus Christ and is brought here at vs41 and what Vs42 states , "Nevertheless, (notwithstanding, although literally true), many eve3n of the rulers believed in Him, but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing Him/Jesus Christ, lest they should be put out of the synagogue;; In short, it all ties together.
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Aug 29 at 17:53
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The first thing in my answer which is noteworthy is the fact that the Apostle John wrote his gospel some years before he wrote the book of Revelation. So whatever John said in the book of Revelation about who is on the throne was first disclosed in the gospel of John.

At Isaiah 6:1 Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH. There is only ONE time that Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH. John says that Isaiah saw "his" glory, the glory of Jesus Christ.

The verb Isaiah used for "saw" in 6:1 is (ra'ah') In the qal (קַל), it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example, "machazeh", which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vision").

In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word ("eidon")--also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense.

We know that God the Father is invisible, "whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (! Timothy 6:16). He is transcendent and lives in unapproachable light. But the Son is "the image of the invisible God," (Colossians 1:15).

Thus, the one whom Isaiah "saw" in the literal sense with his eyes is the one whom he explicitly identified as "YHWH"--the same one whose glory he saw according to John at John 12:41. Jesus Himself makes this clear at vs45, "And he that sees Me sees Him that sent Me."

This is brought out with further clarity at John 14:9 where Jesus is speaking. "Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, "Show us the Father?"

Jesus does not mean to say that He is God the Father. The Father has no separate manifestation from the Son. The Son is the only manifestation and revelation of the Father. What is known of the Father is revealed through the Son. To see the Son is to see the essence of the Father. (John 1:1, 18, 10:30; 12:45; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3).

So what person did Isaiah say he saw at Isaiah 6:1-4? The answer can be found at John 12 starting at vs37. "But though He performed many signs before them, yet they were not believing in Him." (Obviously this is Jesus Christ and the following verses will confirm it).

Vs38, "that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke. "Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?" (what person has been revealed?)

Vs39, "For this cause they could not believe, for Isaiah said again, Vs40, "He has blinded their heart; lest they see with their eyes, and perceive with their heart, and be converted, and I heal them."

Vs41, "These things Isaiah said, because (or why), he saw His glory, and spoke of Him." Vs42, "Nevertheless many even of the rulers believed in Him, but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing Him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue;

Vs44, "And Jesus cried out and said, "He who believes in Me does not believe in Me, but in Him who sent Me." Vs45, "And he who beholds Me beholds the One who sent Me."

It's already a given by Jesus Christ Himself stated that the Father cannot be seen. John 5;37, and John 6:46. 1 Timothy 6:16 was already provided. All it takes is some "deductive reasoning" by reading the context.

I'm editing my answer by providing additional information and clarity.

I'm going to address this one last time using only two verses at John 12. Verses 41-42. "These things Isaiah said, because (or why?) he/Isaiah saw His/Jesus Christ glory, and he/Isaiah spoke of Him/Jesus Christ."

Vs42, "Nevertheless, (in spite of that, although literally true,) which means the previous verses are true, many even of the rulers believed in Him/Jesus Christ, but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing Him/Jesus Christ, lest they should be put out of the synagogue.

Romans 10:9, "that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you shall be saved; Vs10, "for with the heart man believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. Vs11, For the Scripture says, Whoever believes in Him/Jesus Christ will not be disappointed." Vs12, "For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the SAME Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call upon Him; Vs13, "for "whoever will call upon the name of the Lord will be saved."

So, if a person calls on the name of the Lord Jesus Christ will they be saved? Will they also be saved according to Psalms 68:19-20, "Blessed be the Lord, who daily bears our burden, The God who is our salvation."

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  • It came up in discussion that your answer to your own question doesn't clearly state which person of the Trinity is on the Throne in Isaiah 6. If you want to edit your answer so it makes that statement, flag this comment as "no longer needed".
    – Jesse
    Commented Aug 26 at 0:53
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Which one of the persons of the Trinity is sitting on the throne according to Isaiah 6:1-3?

Trinity or no Trinity, the throne scene, here envisioned by the newly commissioned Isaiah, is of our Lord God Almighty, Himself. We know this to be true when taking into account v.3, where clearly Yahweh is being identified as sitting on the said throne.

Isaiah 6:1 - NASB

In the year of king Uzziah's death - (and) I saw the Lord - wa.er.eh et a.do.nay - sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple.

Adonay, or Adonai is best described as a descriptive name of God (Yahweh) in all His glory, and yet still one divine person. The different terms for God used by Isaiah, in v.1 and then differently in v.3 & 5, does not therefore mean more than one divine person is present. Technically, Yahweh is the personal name of God, while Adonai is a descriptive name of God. An emphatic form of Adon.

Attending our lofty and exalted heavenly Host, we have the all important six winged Seraphim, the number of which would appear to be more than two, in fact would most likely have been four, this being more typical, if not topical, of those angelic guardians closest to God and His throne.

Comparative Text

In Revelation 4:1-8, we see a much later but similar throne scene, where we see the four living creatures, each also embodied with six wings apiece, surrounding our Lord God Almighty's throne, although Cherubim as opposed to Seraphim, Seraphim having been superseded by the Cherubim by this later time - both Cherubim and Seraphim were members of the heavenly host that surrounded Yahweh and protected him.

John 12:38-41 - NASB

38 ...that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke, "LORD, WHO HAS BELIEVED OUR REPORT? AND TO WHOM HAS THE ARM OF THE LORD BEEN REVEALED?" [Isaiah 53:1] 39 For this cause they could not believe, for Isaiah said again, 40 "HE HAS BLINDED THEIR EYES, AND HE HARDENED THEIR HEART; LEST THEY SEE WITH THEIR EYES, AND PERCEIVE WITH THEIR HEART, AND BE CONVERTED, AND I HEAL THEM." [Isaiah 6:10] 41 These things Isaiah said, because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him.

The first mention of Lord is in respect of Yahweh, and then - the arm of the Lord - is indeed in respect of Jesus. Consequently, Isaiah saw Jesus as the arm/power - which is a reference to his miracles - of Yahweh. That is not to say that John saw Jesus on the throne.

The "Us" complex

Unlike the heavenly scene, in Revelation, where the Lamb/Jesus is seen separate and before God and His throne, we have a possible insinuation to at least a plurality of persons in Isaiah 6:8. [cf. Gen 1:26]

Then I heard the voice of the Lord (Yahweh), saying, "Whom shall I send, and who will go for Us?" ....

How do we account for the I and Us in the same sentence, iterated by God? Well, of course, it could be any of the following:

 a) God and His angels, i.e. king in council.
 b) God and His Word (the pre-incarnate Jesus).
 c) Plurality of persons in the Godhead (incl. the Holy Ghost).
 d) Pluralis Majestatis.

Either way, one still cannot get around the fact that it is God, Himself, whether in the first person of the Trinity, or no, that is being referenced, as sitting on the throne, in Isaiah 6:1-3.

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    Moderators note: To all three anonymous and therefore cowardly down voters here, please note:- BHSE has a code of conduct, which you all have breached by not owning up to your disagreements. You, of course, may get away with flaunting ethics in this world but there is a whole new world fast approaching and Judgement is a bitch. Nevertheless, It would appear that I may well be driving some truths home, as quite frankly your silence is deafening. The implication being that you people who should speak up may well be too guilty or ashamed to respond or to defend yourselves. Commented Aug 30 at 17:33

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