Timeline for Do verbs in present active indicative always imply temporality?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Jun 17, 2020 at 9:51 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| May 30, 2017 at 21:50 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/869672472072908800 | ||
| May 13, 2017 at 13:17 | history | edited | user474 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 13, 2017 at 2:53 | comment | added | user862 | @fdb—Edited to include a website that recognizes a similar claim. | |
| May 13, 2017 at 2:52 | history | edited | user862 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 12, 2017 at 10:27 | answer | added | fdb | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 12, 2017 at 9:35 | comment | added | Steve can help♦ | @fdb - Just because the question has arisen from a dubious source does not undermine the question itself. It's still a hypothesis about the interpretation of a passage, which the OP is asking BH.SE to scrutinise. "Is it true that verbs in this tense always do X" seems like a premise which is perfectly testable using hard evidence, and which is therefore not "primarily opinion-based". | |
| May 12, 2017 at 8:31 | review | Close votes | |||
| May 12, 2017 at 14:24 | |||||
| May 12, 2017 at 8:14 | comment | added | fdb | I have voted to close this question. "I heard an argument" is not a valid reason. Especially when it is totally wrong. | |
| May 12, 2017 at 6:38 | answer | added | enegue | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 12, 2017 at 4:51 | answer | added | user862 | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 11, 2017 at 23:10 | comment | added | user474 | I heard this argument from a friend (who has a fair amount of Greek training), and thus don't have anything to cite. I find the argument suspect, but don't have the Greek background to evaluate it directly. The best I can do is see if I can find counter-examples where that verb tense is used where the author does not explicitly want to connote temporality, but I haven't had a chance to do a survey on that yet. | |
| May 11, 2017 at 23:02 | comment | added | enegue | The verb ἐπιτρέπω in this verse applies to διδάσκειν (teaching) and αὐθεντεῖν (usurping - grasping authority). According to what you are suggesting, Paul was telling Timothy that his ban on "usurping" was only to be temporary. | |
| May 11, 2017 at 22:22 | comment | added | enegue | It would be helpful if you could cite some source(s) for this view (who did you hear?), otherwise it appears you are simply expressing your preference for what you would like the Greek to say. | |
| May 11, 2017 at 20:50 | history | edited | user862 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 11, 2017 at 19:32 | history | asked | user474 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |