According to Hebrews 6:13-16 God swears by Himself an oath to Abraham, but at Genesis 22:15-16 why does it say the angel of the Lord swore the oath?

Question

According to "The Jewish Encyclopedia," it describes the "Jewish Law of Agency." The Law of Agency deals with the status of a person (known as the agent) acting by direction of another (the principal), and thereby legally binding the principal in his connection with a third person.

The person who binds a principal in this manner is his agent, known in Jewish law as sheluach or sheliach (one that is sent); the relation of the former to the latter is is known as agency (shelichut). This principal is enunciated thus: A man's agent is like himself.

Genesis 17:1-2 states the following. "Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him. "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless, Vs2, And I will multiply you exceedingly." God appears to Abram and says He will multiply Abram descendants.

At Genesis 22 God test Abraham by asking him to sacrifice his son, his only son Isaac. At vs10, "And Abraham stretched out his hand, and took the knife to slay his son." Vs11, BUT the angel of the Lord called to him from heaven, and said, "Abraham, Abraham!" And he said, "Here I am."

Vs12, And he said, (the angel said) Do not stretch out your hand against the lad, and do nothing to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me." At verses 13-14 the Lord provides a ram for Abraham to sacrifice.

Vs15, "Then the angel of the Lord called to Abraham a second time from heaven, vs16, and said, "By Myself I have sworn, declares the Lord because you have done this thing, and have not withheld your son, your only son." Vs17, "indeed I will greatly bless you and multiply your seed as the stars of the heavens, and as the sand which is on the seashore; and your seed shall possess the gate of their enemies." Vs18, "And in your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed because you have obeyed My voice."

So getting back to my question? "Can an angel swear an oath on behalf of God Himself?" Would the Jewish Law of Agency be applicable here? I ask because Hebrews 6:13-16 says, "For when God made the promise to Abraham, since He could not swear by no one greater, He swore by Himself, vs14, saying, I will surely bless you, and I will surely multiply you."

Vs15, "And thus, having patiently waited he obtained the promise. Vs16, For men swear by one greater than themselves, and with them an oath given as confirmation is an end of every dispute."

Answer 1

Malachi makes clear that there is a malak (messenger/angel) that is 'the Lord himself'.

Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts. [Malachi 3:1 KJV]

There is a messenger/malak who is John the Baptist. And there is a messenger/malak who is the Lord himself, come to his temple, who is the Messenger of the Covenant. Or, as Hebrews has it, the Apostle and High Priest of our confession, Christ Jesus.

Jesus adjusts the septuagint by one letter (my face to thy face) and adds clarity.

For this is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. [Matthew 11:10 KJV]

Mark follows Jesus' words and also states 'thy face':

As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. [Mark 1:2 KJV]

making clear that the Messenger of the Covenant is the Lord himself (in the Person of the Son).

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The oath is made by the malak. And there is a malak who is the Lord himself.

Therefore if the malak who sware is Lord himself, then, yes, that malak may sware on behalf of the Lord.