How does Mark 9:36's use of the word "child" compare to the reference of "servant" through the rest of Mark's gospel?
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Please elaborate on your question. Why do you think it is different?– RuminatorCommented Sep 21, 2018 at 11:49
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1Welcome to BHSX. Thank you for your question - the answers you get will be greatly improved if you provide some context for the question, specifically, why is this question important?– user25930Commented Sep 22, 2018 at 21:05
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1 Answer
First, the Greek word translated "child" in Mark 9:36 is "paidion", a diminutive of "pais" from the cognate root "paizo" to play or amuse. "Paidion" will generally mean a small child or toddler (see B M Newman, W E Vine, ANLEX, etc) but can also idiomatically refer to students or disciples (John 21:5, 1 John 2:13, 18) and of Christians very new to the faith and still learning (1 Cor 14:20).
The Gospel of Mark uses this term about 11 times (5:39, 40, 41, 7:28, 30, 9:24, 36, 37, 10:13, 14, 15) and always with the meaning of literal children.
Mark does not use the term "pais" at all.
There are several Greek words that are translated "servant" or "slave". Of these, Mark's Gospel employs the following.
"doulos" Mark 10:41, 12:2, 4, 13:34, 14:47 (bonded labourer)
"diakonos" Mark 9:35, 10:43 (household servant)
"Paidiskon" Mark 14:66, 69 (young girl-servant)
There maybe another that I have missed. However, I do not understand the point of the this question.