Jesus had helped Peter while fishing before Peter became Jesus's disciple, and Jesus had healed many blind and lame people before the wedding miracle in Cana.
However, John 2 says Jesus told mother Mary that his time had not yet come, and according to bible, why is the turning of water into wine considered as the first miracle, though Jesus had performed miracles before?
John 2:12, A.V. says "This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee...".
Simply: John 2:11 clearly states that the miracle at Cana was the first of Jesus’ signs.
John 2:11 - This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him.
This moment was the first demonstration of His power and authority.
John presents a narrative of the early days of Jesus’ ministry. Below is a simplified sequence of these events:
Jesus' miracles include: [1]
The question: Why is the turning of water into wine considered as the first miracle .. though Jesus had performed miracles before.
If Jesus performed miracles (at least one miracle) before turning water into wine it would be logical to conclude that the miracle in Cana of Galilee was not the first.
The task is to search the scripture to ascertain if the turning of water into wine is indeed the first miracle or not.
I assume that we all agree that Jesus did not perform any miracle before he was identified by his cousin John the Baptist. Jesus was unknown in terms of his messiahship before the day of his appearance at the baptism of John.
“John answered, saying unto them all, I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire:” (Luk 3:16, KJV)
None of the enemies of Jesus (the Pharisees and the Sadducees) claimed that Jesus did any miracle before his baptism at the Jordan River.
After his baptism by John, Jesus spent 40 days in the wilderness.
“And there came a voice from heaven, saying, Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. And immediately the Spirit driveth him into the wilderness. And he was there in the wilderness forty days, tempted of Satan; and was with the wild beasts; and the angels ministered unto him.” (Mrk 1:11-13, KJV)
The keyword is "...immediately"! Not a day after...it was immediately. Hence, he did not call anyone to join his ministry.
Therefore, the statement of John the Baptist and his conversation with the Pharisees in Jn.1:19-28 took place about a day before or the day of the end of Jesus's abode in the wilderness. Jesus went to the Jordan River after his wilderness experience in Jn.1:29: it was a day after John conversed with the Pharisees.
Day 2
“The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.” (Jhn 1:29, KJV)
Where was Jesus coming from? Coming from the wilderness?
Hence, we can see that Jesus couldn't have performed any miracles during these times.
Jn.1:29 says "The next day". This was the day after John's conversation with the Pharisees in verses 19-28.
“And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.” (Jhn 1:32, KJV)
'The next day', John the Baptist reported what happened sometime in the past. His disciples heard John's statement.
Day 3
“Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples;” (Jhn 1:35, KJV)
This is another 'next day'...this was the third day that John had the conversation of verses 19-28.
On the day of verse 35, two disciples of John left him and followed Jesus. One of the two was Andrew (Jn.1:40) who told Peter. Verse 35 possibly took place at least a day or two after Jesus left the wilderness. Hence, no miracle was performed by Jesus.
Day 4
“The day following Jesus would go forth into Galilee, and findeth Philip, and saith unto him, Follow me.” (Jhn 1:43, KJV)
'The day following' would be the day after verse 35! Again, no miracle was performed.
Day 5
“And the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there:” (Jhn 2:1, KJV)
Here we read 'The third day...'. Which third day is referred to here?
'The third day' can only be counted from the day of John's declaration of verses 35,36.
Again, we see that there could not have been any miracle between the baptism of Jesus through forty days in the wilderness till he called few disciples.
Jesus had not formed his 12 disciples at the time of the wedding in Cana of Galilee.
According to this chronology, the miracle of Lk.5:1-11 took place later than that of the wedding.
I hope this shows that the miracle at the wedding of Cana of Galilee was indeed the first miracle.
The timing/days could not afford that there was any miracle before this wedding.
It is true that the A.V. says the event at Cana was the first of Jesus’ miracles, but note how other translations do not say ‘miracles’ but ‘signs’. For examples check out the NSAB, RSV, NIV & NLT.
It is important that the Greek word translated ‘miracles’ in the A.V. be examined hermeneutically as this will lead to a correct answer to this question. In the book I quote from below, four Greek words are involved in arriving at the correct translation of John 1:12, namely:
teras (John 4:48, ‘Except ye see signs and wonders, teras, ye will not believe’. The only time John uses that word in his Evangel.)
dunamis but never used by John in his Evangel with the sense of its meaning – (supernatural) power. From dunamis we get the English words dynamic, dynamite and dynamo.
ergon used by John 4 times, translated ‘deed’, but never in the sense of ‘miracle’. In the N.T. ergon is translated as ‘work’ as well as ‘deed’. Jesus puts forth his dunamis to accomplish the ergon given to him by his Father.
semeion meaning ‘sign’, used 17 times by John, but readers would not know that because it has been translated ‘’miracles’ 13 times, and only 4 times correctly, as ‘sign’.
This confused use of semeion is seen throughout the whole N.T. where it is correctly translated ‘sign’ 51 times, but misleadingly rendered ‘miracle’ 22 times. Now let me quote from a 500-page book that delves into six of the seven signs John writes about in his Evangel (sticking only to this first sign in John chapter 2):
“The first sign ends with the words, correctly rendered from the Greek, ‘This beginning of the signs’ semeion [plural] did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him. John 2:11.’ Then, there can be no question about the conclusion of the first sign. The question is, When and where did that sign begin?
Not with the water made wine, John 2:1-10. That confirmed the sign. But it did not constitute it. The sign itself is comprised of those narratives and discourses from the first chapter, which, added to the record of the water made wine make up the whole.” John chapters 1 to 12: the first six signs, John Metcalfe, pages 101-2 http://www.johnmetcalfepublishingtrust.co.uk/contact_us.htm
Then the author goes into the structure of this, so that the meaning of the sign itself may be understood. A few pages previously (from 91 on) the author points out that, just as there are 7 signs in John’s Gospel, so he wrote of 7 parallel sections in the book of the Revelation. Without discerning this deliberate construction of John’s inspired writings, the significance of those signs and sections will be lost to us. Metcalfe’s entire book would benefit those wanting to delve into the difference between Jesus’ miracles, and Jesus’ signs. But this answers the question as, once the difference between miracles and signs is understood, then there is no contradiction in the Bible. Several miracles can be seen to comprise an entire sign. But while wrong translation of Greek words continues, hermeneutic examination, as in Metcalfe’s book here, will clear the problem up.
The first miracle reported in the Gospel of Mark is an exorcism at Capernaum (1:26).
Similar events are described Mt. 4:23.
Luke 4:14 refers to a number of miracles collectively in the vicinity of Capernaum.
The first miracle reported in the Gospel of John is the marriage at Cana.
Conclusion: Since John's gospel does not follow the same course of events as the synoptic gospels, it is impossible to say for certain. The traditional way of putting them together is that the marriage at Cana was the first. However, if this happened later on, then the exorcism at Capernaum is the one one reported.
