Timeline for Who is the Prince of Tyre?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
21 events
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| Nov 22, 2015 at 6:20 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jul 3, 2015 at 9:57 | comment | added | Tau | @MarkEdward,@ScottS I attempted to more clearly lay out a pattern of understanding; we could also see "the Woman's seed, vs the Serpent's seed" if you want to satisfy the concern of "anachronism". | |
| Jul 3, 2015 at 9:49 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jul 3, 2015 at 8:07 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 2, 2014 at 22:19 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2014 at 10:27 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2014 at 10:21 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2014 at 9:50 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2014 at 9:42 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2014 at 9:32 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 26, 2014 at 12:43 | comment | added | Tau | @ScottS (Sorry, if I'm boring you) If you 'require' a rendering in the ancient Hebrew to satisfy your disconsonance, I'm not a linguist; I trust those who have translated the text. I will include links to other sources, as it seems fairly easy to me to dispel the notion of a literal interpretation. | |
| Apr 26, 2014 at 12:32 | comment | added | Tau | @ScottS 1) Can there be a serious discussion of Ithobaal III being "...in Eden, the garden of God", "...the anointed cherub that covereth...,"..thou was on the holy mountain of God, thou walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire...". There is no historical reference to Ithobaal III, other than he was a "King of Tyre"; to begin to discuss him "Literally" in context with the passage requires you to move into "Figurative" interpretation, which takes you "out of bounds" literally. Your 2nd question is a good one, I've written extensively in other answers on this. | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 22:39 | comment | added | ScottS | We know we disagree about mixing literal/figurative. However, my point is you state "Since we have established that King of Tyre is not "Literally" the King of Tyre, but Satan," and my point is you have not established that in this answer from this text. (Again, I think it can be.) Without that, you cannot even begin to push to who the prince is (since you are working "back" to that from the King being Satan). Another flaw, however, is that "man as God" describes every person that is in rebellion against God. So it is not exclusive to the Antichrist, he is just the epitome. | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 22:28 | comment | added | Tau | @ScottS I will 'link' other commentaries that make my case if that would help; I notice that at times when answers get too long I tend to skim them. MarkEdward makes the case for Ithobaal III, you can build an argument(hence my +1) for it, but it falls apart when you change contexts. If you start with a figurative context, then the Antichrist is the best conclusion(IMHO). | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 22:20 | comment | added | Tau | @ScottS (cont.)If Figuratively Satan=King of Tyre, Then Figuratively, what does "Prince of Tyre" represent? We have had this discussion before about not 'mixing' Literal and Figurative contexts to suit our interpretations: God doesn't do it; neither should we. The representation that Scripture equates "man as God" is the Antichrist, of which we have abundant scriptures to prove. "Satan" is the King, "Antichrist" is the Prince; just as "Satan" gives all his 'power' to the "Antichrist"(Satan-being the 'dragaon' who gives his power to the Beast-Rev. 13) | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 22:06 | comment | added | Tau | @ScottS I was hoping to make my case w/o a lengthy dissertation(hint:'unreadable) explanation of how the 'language' doesn't support an "Ithobaal III" interpretation. Quite simply, the answer is in context: You can't equate A) Ithobaal=Prince of Tyre; to B) Ithobaal=King of Tyre, from a Literal(Historical/Grammatical) context; it's that simple. Therefore: If NOT/ Then WHAT? Since Satan=King of Tyre, does Satan=Prince of Tyre? Of course not! Since we have established that King of Tyre is not "Literally" the King of Tyre, but Satan, our context is "Figurative" and not "Literal". | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 20:21 | comment | added | ScottS | (cont.) can you move to this logic "Since we have been taken in this direction in regards to the 'King of Tyre' [i.e. that it is Satan], what does it say about the 'Prince of Tyre'?" and have it mean anything toward your argument. | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 20:20 | comment | added | ScottS | I have to agree with @MarkEdward here. I personally do hold that "the King of Tyre" is Satan (and feel like that can be supported from the text of Ezekiel 28). I'm not convinced the "prince" is the Antichrist rather than the ruler of Tyre at the time. You do make a number of "leaps" in your presentation. You simply assert "The King of Tyre is Satan" and then link the other texts. You need to first prove that from the context of Ezek 28 (not that you cannot use other scripture to support it, but you are not clear from Ezekiel how you equate it). Only then (cont.) | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 16:44 | comment | added | user2910 | Can you provide an explanation for why readers should make the jump from Ezekiel 28 to Isaiah 14, to Daniel 11, to 2 Thessalonians 2 (to 1 / 2 John, the only place 'antichrist' is actually mentioned)? You haven't actually shown the work on how we get from one text to the next. The answer is common, so I'm not challenging its place here. But without giving a reason for why those intertextual connections should be made, the answer as it stands is very inadequate. | |
| Apr 25, 2014 at 8:17 | history | edited | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 25, 2014 at 8:10 | history | answered | Tau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |