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Mar 3 at 11:07 comment added Levan Gigineishvili @raygrant John 20:27 says that our Lord told Thomas to touch His wounds, but does not tell if Thomas did so, and 1 John 1:1-2 does not necessarily imply that they touched the body of the resurrected Christ; it is possible to see both ways, neither will be heretical. However Luke 24:39-41 in which the Lord shows the disciples His wounds and then, as if this was not enough for them to believe, also eats in front of them, may imply that they touched His wounds and since still remained in disbelief, He also showed the true physicality of His body also by eating.
Mar 2 at 19:16 comment added ray grant @Dottard - No Evidence? Read the verses listed: John 20:27 and 1 John 1:1-4! Also see Answer below.
Mar 2 at 2:06 comment added Dottard @raygrant - you have not presented any evidence.
Mar 1 at 22:55 comment added ray grant Jesus Himself linked Thomas's believing with touching, not just seeing! (John 20:27) The whole story, with 1 John 1:1-4, included all the senses., providing empirical proof of the Resurrection. With "vision only" succeeding generations would only surmise that they had a hallucination., etc. not a real resurrection. I didn't down vote but I can "see" the reason why one would.
Oct 24, 2022 at 19:56 comment added Levan Gigineishvili @Down-voter My anonymous benefactor, i care not for + or - es, but please lay down your reasons, I am earnestly interested. Thanks in advance!
Oct 24, 2022 at 11:39 history answered Levan Gigineishvili CC BY-SA 4.0